NEET 2025 Zoology Question Paper (Available): Download NEET 2025 Answer key Code 46

NEET 2025 Zoology Question Paper with Solutions PDF is available for download. NEET 2025 Zoology Question Paper comprises 45 MCQs. NEET 2025 has been conducted on May 4, 2025. You can download NEET 2025 Zoology question paper with answer key and solutions PDF using the links given below.

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NEET 2025 Zoology Question Paper with Solutions PDF

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NEET 2025 Question Paper


Question 1:

Identify the part of a bio-reactor which is used as a foam breaker from the given figure.

  • (1) B
  • (2) D
  • (3) C
  • (4) A
Correct Answer: (2) D
View Solution

Question 2:

Name the class of enzyme that usually catalyzes the following reaction:
\[ S - G + S^{\prime} \rightarrow S + S^{\prime} - G \]
Where \( G \) represents a group other than hydrogen, \( S \) is a substrate, and \( S^{\prime} \) is another substrate.

  • (1) Lyase
  • (2) Transferase
  • (3) Ligase
  • (4) Hydrolase
Correct Answer: (1) Lyase
View Solution

Question 3:

Match List I with List II:

A. Chlorophyll a          I. Yellow-green
B. Chlorophyll b          II. Yellow
C. Xanthophylls          III. Blue-green
D. Carotenoids            IV. Yellow to Yellow-orange
 
Choose the option with all correct matches.

  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
  • (4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Correct Answer: (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
View Solution

The matching of the components of List I with their corresponding colors in List II is as follows:

Chlorophyll a is typically associated with a blue-green color (III).
Chlorophyll b has a yellow-green color (I).
Xanthophylls give a yellow color (II).
Carotenoids are known for their yellow to yellow-orange color (IV).


Thus, the correct matches are: \[ A - III, \quad B - I, \quad C - II, \quad D - IV \]


Question 4:

The correct sequence of events in the life cycle of bryophytes is:

A. Fusion of antherozoid with egg.
B. Attachment of gametophyte to substratum.
C. Reduction division to produce haploid spores.
D. Formation of sporophyte.
E. Release of antherozoids into water.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) B, E, A, C, D
  • (2) B, E, A, D, C
  • (3) D, E, A, B, C
  • (4) D, E, A, C, B
Correct Answer: (1) B, E, A, C, D
View Solution

Question 5:

Match List I with List II:

A. Centromere                 I. Mitochondrion
B. Cilium                          II. Cell division
C. Cristae                         III. Cell movement
D. Cell membrane           IV. Phospholipid Bilayer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Correct Answer: (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
View Solution

The correct matches are:

A - Centromere is involved in Cell division (II).
B - Cilium is involved in Cell movement (III).
C - Cristae are found in Mitochondrion (I).
D - Cell membrane consists of Phospholipid Bilayer (IV).


Thus, the correct matches are: \[ A - II, \quad B - III, \quad C - I, \quad D - IV \]


Question 6:

Find the correct statements:

A. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks.
B. In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks.
C. In human pregnancy, heart is formed after one month of gestation.
D. In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month.
E. In human pregnancy, the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B and C Only
  • (2) B, C, D and E Only
  • (3) A, C, D and E Only
  • (4) A and E Only
Correct Answer: (3) A, C, D and E Only
View Solution

Question 7:

Each of the following characteristics represents a Kingdom proposed by Whittaker. Arrange the following in increasing order of complexity of body organization.

A. Multicellular heterotrophs with cell wall made of chitin.
B. Heterotrophs with tissue/organ/organ system level of body organization.
C. Prokaryotes with cell wall made of polysaccharides and amino acids.
D. Eukaryotic autotrophs with tissue/organ level of body organization.
E. Eukaryotes with cellular body organization.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) C, E, A, D, B
  • (2) A, C, E, D, B
  • (3) C, E, A, B, D
  • (4) C, E, A, C, B
Correct Answer: (1) C, E, A, D, B
View Solution

Question 8:

Which are correct?

A. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging detect cancers of internal organs.
B. Chemotherapeutic drugs are used to kill non-cancerous cells.
C. \( \alpha \)-interferon activates the cancer patients' immune system and helps in destroying the tumour.
D. Chemotherapeutic drugs are biological response modifiers.
E. In the case of leukemia, blood cell counts are decreased.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) D and E only
  • (2) C and D only
  • (3) A and C only
  • (4) B and D only
Correct Answer: (2) C and D only
View Solution

Question 9:

Which of the following genetically engineered organisms was used by Eli Lilly to prepare human insulin?

  • (1) Yeast
  • (2) Virus
  • (3) Phage
  • (4) Bacterium
Correct Answer: (4) Bacterium
View Solution

Question 10:

What is the pattern of inheritance for polygenic trait?

  • (1) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
  • (2) Autosomal dominant pattern
  • (3) X-linked recessive inheritance pattern
  • (4) Mendelian inheritance pattern
Correct Answer: (1) Non-mendelian inheritance pattern
View Solution

Question 11:

Which of the following are the post-transcriptional events in an eukaryotic cell?

(A) Transport of pre-mRNA to cytoplasm prior to splicing.
(B) Removal of introns and joining of exons.
(C) Addition of methyl group at 5' end of hnRNA.
(D) Addition of adenine residues at 3' end of hnRNA.
(E) Base pairing of two complementary RNAs.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B, C, D only
  • (2) B, C, E only
  • (3) C, D, E only
  • (4) A, B, C only
Correct Answer: (1) B, C, D only
View Solution

Question 12:

Which one of the following phytohormones promotes nutrient mobilization which helps in the delay of leaf senescence in plants?

  • (1) Abscisic acid
  • (2) Gibberellin
  • (3) Cytokinin
  • (4) Ethylene
Correct Answer: (3) Cytokinin
View Solution

Question 13:

Which one of the following statements refers to Reductionist Biology?

  • (1) Physiological approach to study and understand living organisms.
  • (2) Chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
  • (3) Behavioural approach to study and understand living organisms.
  • (4) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
Correct Answer: (4) Physico-chemical approach to study and understand living organisms.
View Solution

Question 14:

Match List I with List II:

A. Emphysema                         I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca^{++} in body fluid
B. Angina Pectoris                   II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface
C. Glomerulonephritis             III. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching the heart muscle
D. Tetany                                   IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  • (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Correct Answer: (3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
View Solution

Let's match the conditions with the descriptions:

A. Emphysema is characterized by damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface, which makes it difficult to exchange gases. Therefore, A matches with II.

B. Angina Pectoris involves acute chest pain when there is insufficient oxygen reaching the heart muscle, which is typically caused by a blockage in coronary arteries. Therefore, B matches with III.

C. Glomerulonephritis refers to inflammation of the glomeruli in the kidney, which is the filtering unit. Therefore, C matches with IV.

D. Tetany occurs when there are rapid spasms in muscles due to low calcium levels in body fluids. Therefore, D matches with I.

Thus, the correct answer is A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I.


Question 15:

Epiphytes that are growing on a mango branch is an example of which of the following?

  • (1) Mutualism
  • (2) Predation
  • (3) Amensalism
  • (4) Commensalism
Correct Answer: (4) Commensalism
View Solution

Question 16:

Match List I with List II:

A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase            I. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Euchromatin                                               II. Densely packed and dark-stained
C. Frederick Griffith                                        III. Loosely packed and light-stained
D. Heterochromatin                                         IV. DNA as genetic material confirmation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
  • (4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Correct Answer: (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
View Solution

Let's match each item:

A. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase are famous for their experiment which confirmed that DNA is the genetic material. Thus, A matches with IV.

B. Euchromatin is a form of chromatin that is loosely packed and light-stained, allowing easier transcription and gene expression. Thus, B matches with III.

C. Frederick Griffith is known for his experiment on Streptococcus pneumoniae, where he demonstrated the transformation principle. Thus, C matches with I.

D. Heterochromatin is tightly packed and dark-stained chromatin that is typically inactive in gene expression. Thus, D matches with II.

Thus, the correct answer is A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.


Question 17:

Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?

  • (1) Chromosome Y
  • (2) Chromosome 1
  • (3) Chromosome 10
  • (4) Chromosome X
Correct Answer: (2) Chromosome 1
View Solution

Question 18:

What are the potential drawbacks in adoption of the IVF method?

A. High fatality risk to mother
B. Expensive instruments and reagents
C. Husband/wife necessary for being donors
D. Less adoption of orphans
E. Not available in India
F. Possibility that the early embryo does not survive

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, C, D, F only
  • (2) A, B, C, D only
  • (3) A, B, C, E, F only
  • (4) B, D, F only
Correct Answer: (1) A, C, D, F only
View Solution

Question 19:

Match List I with List II:

A. Head                             I. Enzymes
B. Middle piece                II. Sperm motility
C. Acrosome                    III. Energy
D. Tail                               IV. Genetic material

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  • (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Correct Answer: (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
View Solution

Let's match each component of a sperm cell with its function:

A. Head contains genetic material, which is the DNA required for fertilization. Therefore, A matches with IV.

B. Middle piece provides the energy required for sperm motility, as it contains mitochondria. Thus, B matches with III.

C. Acrosome is an enzyme-containing structure that helps the sperm to penetrate the egg during fertilization. Therefore, C matches with I.

D. Tail is responsible for sperm motility, allowing the sperm to move towards the egg. Thus, D matches with II.

Thus, the correct answer is A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II.


Question 20:

From the statements given below, choose the correct option:

(A) The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S and prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
(B) Each ribosome has two sub-units.
(C) The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 40S while that of 70S are 50S and 30S.
(D) The two sub-units of 80S ribosome are 60S and 20S and that of 70S are 50S and 20S.
(E) The two sub-units of 80S are 60S and 30S and that of 70S are 50S and 30S.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, D are true
  • (2) A, B, E are true
  • (3) B, D, E are true
  • (4) A, B, C are true
Correct Answer: (2) A, B, E are true
View Solution

Question 21:

Which of the following is an example of non-distilled alcoholic beverage produced by yeast?

  • (1) Brandy
  • (2) Beer
  • (3) Rum
  • (4) Whisky
Correct Answer: (2) Beer
View Solution

Question 22:

Who is known as the father of Ecology in India?

  • (1) Ramdeo Misra
  • (2) Ram Udar
  • (3) Birbal Sahni
  • (4) S. R. Kashyap
Correct Answer: (1) Ramdeo Misra
View Solution

Question 23:

In the seeds of cereals, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a protein-rich layer called:

  • (1) Coleorhiza
  • (2) Integument
  • (3) Aleurone layer
  • (4) Coleoptile
Correct Answer: (3) Aleurone layer
View Solution

Question 24:

Which of the following statement is correct about location of the male frog copulatory pad?

  • (1) First digit of hind limb
  • (2) Second digit of fore limb
  • (3) First digit of the fore limb
  • (4) First and second digit of fore limb
Correct Answer: (3) First digit of the fore limb
View Solution

Question 25:

A specialised membranous structure in a prokaryotic cell which helps in cell wall formation, DNA replication, and respiration is:

  • (1) Chromatophores
  • (2) Cristae
  • (3) Endoplasmic Reticulum
  • (4) Mesosome
Correct Answer: (4) Mesosome
View Solution

Question 26:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Transfer RNAs and ribosomal RNA do not interact with mRNA.
Statement II: RNA interference (RNAi) takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defence.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Correct Answer: (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
View Solution

Question 27:

What is the name of the blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the body to the heart in a frog?

  • (1) Pulmonary artery
  • (2) Pulmonary vein
  • (3) Vena cava
  • (4) Aorta
Correct Answer: (3) Vena cava
View Solution

Question 28:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable.
Statement II: DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repair mechanisms.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Correct Answer: (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
View Solution

Question 29:

Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

  • (1) Wildlife Sanctuary
  • (2) Zoos and botanical gardens
  • (3) Protected areas
  • (4) National Park
Correct Answer: (2) Zoos and botanical gardens
View Solution

Question 30:

Which one of the following enzymes contains 'Heme' as the prosthetic group?

  • (1) Carbonic anhydrase
  • (2) Succinate dehydrogenase
  • (3) Catalase
  • (4) Rubisco
Correct Answer: (3) Catalase
View Solution

Question 31:

Given below are the stages in the life cycle of pteridophytes. Arrange the following stages in the correct sequence.

A. Prothallus stage
B. Meiosis in spore mother cells
C. Fertilisation
D. Formation of archegonia and antheridia in gametophyte
E. Transfer of antherozoids to the archegonia in presence of water

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B, A, E, C, D
  • (2) D, E, C, A, B
  • (3) E, D, C, B, A
  • (4) B, A, D, E, C
Correct Answer: (4) B, A, D, E, C
View Solution

Question 32:

Which of the following organisms cannot fix nitrogen?
A. Azotobacter
B. Oscillatoria
C. Anabaena
D. Volvox
E. Nostoc

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) D only
  • (2) B only
  • (3) E only
  • (4) A only
Correct Answer: (1) D only
View Solution

Question 33:

While trying to find out the characteristic of a newly found animal, a researcher did the histology of adult animal and observed a cavity with presence of mesodermal tissue towards the body wall but no mesodermal tissue was observed towards the alimentary canal. What could be the possible coelom of that animal?

  • (1) Pseudocoelomate
  • (2) Schizocoelomate
  • (3) Spongocoelomate
  • (4) Acoelomate
Correct Answer: (1) Pseudocoelomate
View Solution

Question 34:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In a floral formula, \( \oplus \) stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and \( G \) stands for the interior ovary.
Statement II: In a floral formula, \( \oplus \) stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower, and \( G \) stands for the superior ovary.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Correct Answer: (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
View Solution

Question 35:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.
Statement II: The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP).

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Correct Answer: (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
View Solution

Question 36:

Which of the following diagrams is correct with regard to the proximal (P) and distal (D) tubule of the nephron?

Correct Answer: (3)
View Solution

Question 37:

Streptokinase produced by bacterium Streptococcus is used for:

  • (1) Ethanol production
  • (2) Liver disease treatment
  • (3) Removing clots from blood vessels
  • (4) Curd production
Correct Answer: (3) Removing clots from blood vessels
View Solution

Question 38:

Cardiac activities of the heart are regulated by:

A. Nodal tissue
B. A special neural centre in the medulla oblongata
C. Adrenal medullary hormones
D. Adrenal cortical hormones
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, C and D
  • (2) A, C and D Only
  • (3) A, B and D Only
  • (4) A, B and C Only
Correct Answer: (2) A, C and D Only
View Solution

Question 39:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): A typical unfertilized, angiosperm embryo sac at maturity is 8-nucleate and 7-celled.
Reason (R): The egg apparatus has 2 polar nuclei.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (2) A is true but R is false
  • (3) A is false but R is true
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
View Solution

Question 40:

Find the statement that is NOT correct with regard to the structure of monocot stem.

  • (1) Vascular bundles are scattered.
  • (2) Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed.
  • (3) Phloem parenchyma is absent.
  • (4) Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
Correct Answer: (4) Hypodermis is parenchymatous.
View Solution

Question 41:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colorful and do not produce nectar.
Reason (R): The flowers produce enormous amounts of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
  • (2) A is true but R is false
  • (3) A is false but R is true
  • (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Correct Answer: (1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
View Solution

Question 42:

Neoplastic characteristics of cells refer to:

A. A mass of proliferating cells
B. Rapid growth of cells
C. Invasion and damage to the surrounding tissue
D. Those confined to the original location

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, C only
  • (2) A, B, D only
  • (3) B, C, D only
  • (4) A, B only
Correct Answer: (1) A, B, C only
View Solution

Question 43:

The complex II of mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as:

  • (1) Succinic dehydrogenase
  • (2) Cytochrome c oxidase
  • (3) NADH dehydrogenase
  • (4) Cytochrome bc1
Correct Answer: (1) Succinic dehydrogenase
View Solution

Question 44:

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) amplifies DNA following the equation.

  • (1) \( 2^n \)
  • (2) \( 2n + 1 \)
  • (3) \( 2^{2} \)
  • (4) \( N^2 \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( 2^n \)
View Solution

Question 45:

In the above represented plasmid an alien piece of DNA is inserted at the EcoRI site. Which of the following strategies will be chosen to select the recombinant colonies?

  • (1) Blue color colonies will be selected.
  • (2) White color colonies will be selected.
  • (3) Blue color colonies grown on ampicillin plates.
  • (4) Using ampicillin \& tetracyclin containing medium plate.
Correct Answer: (2) White color colonies will be selected.
View Solution

Last Minute Tips for NEET from Toppers

NEET Questions

  • 1.
    An oxygen cylinder of volume 30 litre has 18.20 moles of oxygen. After some oxygen is withdrawn from the cylinder, its gauge pressure drops to 11 atmospheric pressure at temperature \(27^\circ\)C. The mass of the oxygen withdrawn from the cylinder is nearly equal to: [Given, \(R = \frac{100}{12} \text{ J mol}^{-1} \text{K}^{-1}\), and molecular mass of \(O_2 = 32 \text{ g/mol}\), 1 atm pressure = \(1.01 \times 10^5 \text{ N/m}^2\)]

      • \( 0.144 \text{ kg} \)
      • \( 0.116 \text{ kg} \)
      • \( 0.156 \text{ kg} \)
      • \( 0.125 \text{ kg} \)

    • 2.
      A wire of resistance \(R\) is cut into 8 equal pieces. From these pieces, two equivalent resistances are made by adding four of these together in parallel. Then these two are added in series. The net effective resistance of the combination is:

        • \( \frac{R}{32} \)
        • \( \frac{R}{4} \)
        • \( \frac{R}{8} \)
        • \( \frac{R}{6} \)

      • 3.
        Which chromosome in the human genome has the highest number of genes?

          • Chromosome Y
          • Chromosome 1
          • Chromosome 10
          • Chromosome X

        • 4.
          If the rate constant of a reaction is 0.03 s$^{-1}$, how much time does it take for a 7.2 mol L$^{-1}$ concentration of the reactant to get reduced to 0.9 mol L$^{-1}$?
          (Given: log 2 = 0.301)

            • 23.1 s
            • 210 s
            • 21.0 s
            • 69.3 s

          • 5.
            The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are separated by d. Two slabs of different dielectric constant \(K_1\) and \(K_2\) with thickness \(d/2\) and \(d/2\) respectively are inserted in the capacitor. Due to this, the capacitance becomes two times larger than when there is nothing between the plates. If \(K_1 = 1.25 K_2\), the value of \(K_2\) is :

              • \( 2.33 \)
              • \( 1.60 \)
              • \( 1.33 \)
              • \( 2.66 \)

            • 6.
              Consider the diameter of a spherical object being measured with the help of a Vernier Callipers. Suppose its 10 Vernier Scale Divisions (V.S.D.) are equal to its 9 Main Scale Divisions (M.S.D.). The least count in the M.S. is 0.1 cm and the zero of V.S. is at -0.1 cm when the jaws of Vernier callipers are closed. If the main scale reading for the diameter is \(M = 5\) cm and the number of coinciding vernier division is 8, the measured diameter after zero error correction, is:

                • \( 5.08 \text{ cm} \)
                • \( 4.98 \text{ cm} \)
                • \( 5.09 \text{ cm} \)
                • \( 5.18 \text{ cm} \)

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