GATE 2024 Civil Engineering Question Paper (Available)- Download Solution PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Aug 30, 2025

GATE 2024 Civil Engineering Question Paper PDF is available here. IISc Banglore conducted GATE 2024 Civil Engineering exam on February 4 in the Forenoon Session from 9:30 AM to 12:30 PM. Students have to answer 65 questions in GATE 2024 Civil Engineering Question Paper carrying a total weightage of 100 marks. 10 questions are from the General Aptitude section and 55 questions are from Engineering Mathematics and Core Discipline.

GATE 2024 Civil Engineering Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

GATE 2024 Civil Engineering Question Paper with Answer Key PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

GATE 2024 Civil Engineering Question Paper Solution


Question 1:

If \( \to \) denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words [simmer \( \to \) seethe \( \to \) smolder] is analogous to [break \( \to \) raze \( \to \) _______].
Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?

  • (A) obfuscate
  • (B) obliterate
  • (C) fracture
  • (D) fissure
Correct Answer: (B) obliterate
View Solution

Question 2:

In a locality, the houses are numbered in the following way:
The house-numbers on one side of a road are consecutive odd integers starting from 301, while the house-numbers on the other side of the road are consecutive even numbers starting from 302. The total number of houses is the same on both sides of the road.

If the difference of the sum of the house-numbers between the two sides of the road is 27, then the number of houses on each side of the road is

  • (A) 27
  • (B) 52
  • (C) 54
  • (D) 26
Correct Answer: (A) 27
View Solution

Question 3:

For positive integers \( p \) and \( q \), with \( \frac{p}{q} \neq 1 \), \( \left(\frac{p}{q}\right)^q = p^{(q-1)} \). Then,

  • (A) \( q^p = p^q \)
  • (B) \( q^p = p^{2q} \)
  • (C) \( \sqrt{q} = \sqrt{p} \)
  • (D) \( p\sqrt{q} = q\sqrt{p} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( q^p = p^q \)
View Solution

Question 4:

Which one of the given options is a possible value of \( x \) in the following sequence?
\[ 3, 7, 15, x, 63, 127, 255 \]

  • (A) 35
  • (B) 40
  • (C) 45
  • (D) 31
Correct Answer: (D) 31
View Solution

Question 5:

On a given day, how many times will the second-hand and the minute-hand of a clock cross each other during the clock time 12:05:00 hours to 12:55:00 hours?

  • (A) 51
  • (B) 49
  • (C) 50
  • (D) 55
Correct Answer: (C) 50
View Solution

Question 6:

In the given text, the blanks are numbered (i)–(iv). Select the best match for all the blanks.
Text:

From the ancient Athenian arena to the modern Olympic stadiums, athletics ____ (i) ____ the potential for a spectacle. The crowd ____ (ii) ____ with bated breath as the Olympian artist twists his body, stretching the javelin behind him. Twelve strides in, he begins to cross-step. Six cross-steps ____ (iii) ____ in an abrupt stop on his left foot. As his body ____ (iv) ____ like a door turning on a hinge, the javelin is launched skyward at a precise angle.

  • (A) (i) hold (ii) waits (iii) culminates (iv) pivot
  • (B) (i) holds (ii) wait (iii) culminates (iv) pivot
  • (C) (i) hold (ii) wait (iii) culminate (iv) pivots
  • (D) (i) holds (ii) waits (iii) culminate (iv) pivots
Correct Answer: (D) (i) holds (ii) waits (iii) culminate (iv) pivots
View Solution

Question 7:

Three distinct sets of indistinguishable twins are to be seated at a circular table that has 8 identical chairs. Unique seating arrangements are defined by the relative positions of the people. How many unique seating arrangements are possible such that each person is sitting next to their twin?

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 14
  • (C) 10
  • (D) 28
Correct Answer: (A) 12
View Solution

Question 8:

The chart below compares the Installed Capacity (MW) of four power generation technologies, T1, T2, T3, and T4, and their Electricity Generation (MWh) in a time of 1000 hours (h).

The Capacity Factor of a power generation technology is defined as:

Capacity Factor = \(\frac{Electricity Generation (MWh)}{Installed Capacity (MW) × 1000 (h)}\)

Which one of the given technologies has the highest Capacity Factor?

  • (A) T1
  • (B) T2
  • (C) T3
  • (D) T4
Correct Answer: (A) T1
View Solution

Question 9:

In the \( 4 \times 4 \) array shown below, each cell of the first three columns has either a cross (X) or a number, as per the given rule.



Rule: The number in a cell represents the count of crosses around its immediate neighboring cells (left, right, top, bottom, diagonals).

As per this rule, the maximum number of crosses possible in the empty column is:

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (C) 2
View Solution

Question 10:

During a half-moon phase, the Earth-Moon-Sun form a right triangle. If the Moon-Earth-Sun angle at this half-moon phase is measured to be \(89.85^\circ\), the ratio of the Earth-Sun and Earth-Moon distances is closest to:

  • (A) 328
  • (B) 382
  • (C) 238
  • (D) 283
Correct Answer: (B) 382
View Solution

Question 11:

The smallest positive root of the equation
\[ x^5 - 5x^4 - 10x^3 + 50x^2 + 9x - 45 = 0 \]

lies in the range

  • (A) \( 0 < x \leq 2 \)
  • (B) \( 2 < x \leq 4 \)
  • (C) \( 6 \leq x \leq 8 \)
  • (D) \( 10 \leq x \leq 100 \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 0 < x \leq 2 \)
View Solution

Question 12:

The second-order differential equation in an unknown function \( u: u(x,y) \) is defined as
\[ \frac{\partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} = 2 \]

Assuming \( g: g(x) \), \( f: f(y) \), and \( h: h(y) \), the general solution of the above differential equation is

  • (A) \( u = x^2 + f(y) + g(x) \)
  • (B) \( u = x^2 + x f(y) + h(y) \)
  • (C) \( u = x^2 + x f(y) + g(x) \)
  • (D) \( u = x^2 + f(y) + y g(x) \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( u = x^2 + x f(y) + h(y) \)
View Solution

Question 13:

The probability that a student passes only in Mathematics is \( \frac{1}{3} \). The probability that the student passes only in English is \( \frac{4}{9} \). The probability that the student passes in both of these subjects is \( \frac{1}{6} \). The probability that the student will pass in at least one of these two subjects is

  • (A) \( \frac{17}{18} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{11}{18} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{14}{18} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{18} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( \frac{17}{18} \)
View Solution

Question 14:

The three-dimensional state of stress at a point is given by
 


The maximum shear stress at the point is

  • (A) 20 MPa
  • (B) 15 MPa
  • (C) 5 MPa
  • (D) 25 MPa
Correct Answer: (A) 20 MPa
View Solution

Question 15:

Concrete of characteristic strength 30 MPa is required. If 40 specimens of concrete cubes are to be tested, the minimum number of specimens having at least 30 MPa strength should be

  • (A) 35
  • (B) 37
  • (C) 38
  • (D) 39
Correct Answer: (C) 38
View Solution

Question 16:

Consider the statements P and

P: Client’s Preliminary Estimate is used for budgeting costs toward the end of planning and design phase.
Q: Client’s Detailed Estimate is used for controlling costs during the execution of the project.

Which one of the following options is CORRECT?

  • (A) Both P and Q are TRUE
  • (B) P is TRUE and Q is FALSE
  • (C) Both P and Q are FALSE
  • (D) P is FALSE and Q is TRUE
Correct Answer: (A) Both P and Q are TRUE
View Solution

Question 17:

The following figure shows the arrangement of formwork for casting a cantilever RC beam.

The correct sequence of removing the Shores/Props is

  • (A) \( S1 \rightarrow S2 \rightarrow S3 \rightarrow S4 \rightarrow S5 \)
  • (B) \( S5 \rightarrow S4 \rightarrow S3 \rightarrow S2 \rightarrow S1 \)
  • (C) \( S3 \rightarrow S2 \rightarrow S4 \rightarrow S1 \rightarrow S5 \)
  • (D) \( S3 \rightarrow S4 \rightarrow S2 \rightarrow S5 \rightarrow S1 \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( S5 \rightarrow S4 \rightarrow S3 \rightarrow S2 \rightarrow S1 \)
View Solution

Question 18:

A 2 m wide strip footing is founded at a depth of 1.5 m below the ground level in a homogeneous pure clay bed. The clay bed has unit cohesion of 40 kPa. Due to seasonal fluctuations of water table from peak summer to peak monsoon period, the net ultimate bearing capacity of the footing, as per Terzaghi’s theory, will

  • (A) remain the same
  • (B) decrease
  • (C) increase
  • (D) become zero
Correct Answer: (A) remain the same
View Solution

Question 19:

Consider the statements P and Q

P: Soil particles formed by mechanical weathering, and close to their origin are generally subrounded.
Q: Activity of the clay physically signifies its swell potential.

Which one of the following options is CORRECT?

  • (A) Both P and Q are TRUE
  • (B) P is TRUE and Q is FALSE
  • (C) Both P and Q are FALSE
  • (D) P is FALSE and Q is TRUE
Correct Answer: (D) P is FALSE and Q is TRUE
View Solution

Question 20:

The number of degrees of freedom for a natural open channel flow with a mobile bed is

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (C) 4
View Solution

Question 21:

The following table gives various components of Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) and a list of treatment/separation techniques.


The CORRECT match is

  • (A) P-iii, Q-iv, R-i, S-ii
  • (B) P-iv, Q-iii, R-ii, S-i
  • (C) P-iii, Q-iv, R-ii, S-i
  • (D) P-iv, Q-iii, R-i, S-ii
Correct Answer: (B) P-iv, Q-iii, R-ii, S-i
View Solution

Question 22:

A car is travelling at a speed of 60 km/hr on a section of a National Highway having a downward gradient of 2%. The driver of the car suddenly observes a stopped vehicle on the car path at a distance 130 m ahead, and applies brake. If the brake efficiency is 60%, coefficient of friction is 0.7, driver’s reaction time is 2.5 s, and acceleration due to gravity is 9.81 m/s\(^2\), the distance (in meters) required by the driver to bring the car to a safe stop lies in the range

  • (A) 126 to 130
  • (B) 41 to 45
  • (C) 33 to 37
  • (D) 75 to 79
Correct Answer: (D) 75 m
View Solution

Question 23:

As per the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), the basic runway length is increased by \( x \) (%) for every \( y \) (m) raise in elevation from the Mean Sea Level (MSL). The values of \( x \) and \( y \), respectively, are

  • (A) 7% and 300 m
  • (B) 5% and 200 m
  • (C) 4% and 500 m
  • (D) 10% and 1000 m
Correct Answer: (A) 7% and 300 m
View Solution

Question 24:

Which one of the following statements related to bitumen is FALSE?

  • (A) Kinematic viscosity is a measure of resistance to the flow of molten bitumen under gravity.
  • (B) Softer grade bitumen possesses higher softening point than hard grade bitumen.
  • (C) Flash point of bitumen is the lowest temperature at which application of a test flame causes vapours of the bitumen to catch an instant fire in the form of flash under specified test conditions.
  • (D) Ductility test is carried out on bitumen to test its adhesive property and ability to stretch.
Correct Answer: (B) Softer grade bitumen possesses higher softening point than hard grade bitumen.
View Solution

Question 25:

If the number of sides resulting in a closed traverse is increased from three to four, the sum of the interior angles increases by

  • (A) \( 90^\circ \)
  • (B) \( 180^\circ \)
  • (C) \( 270^\circ \)
  • (D) \( 360^\circ \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( 180^\circ \)
View Solution

Question 26:

A surveyor observes a zenith angle of \( 93^\circ \, 00' \, 00'' \) during a theodolite survey. The corresponding vertical angle is

  • (A) \(- 03^\circ \, 00' \, 00'' \)
  • (B) \(+ 03^\circ \, 00' \, 00'' \)
  • (C) \(- 87^\circ \, 00' \, 00'' \)
  • (D) \(+ 87^\circ \, 00' \, 00'' \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( -03^\circ \, 00' \, 00'' \)
View Solution

Question 27:

Among the following statements relating the fundamental lines of a transit theodolite, which one is CORRECT?

  • (A) The line of collimation must be perpendicular to the horizontal axis at its intersection with the vertical axis.
  • (B) The axis of altitude level must be perpendicular to the line of collimation.
  • (C) The axis of plate level must lie in a plane parallel to the vertical axis.
  • (D) The Vernier of vertical circle must read zero when the line of collimation is vertical.
Correct Answer: (A) The line of collimation must be perpendicular to the horizontal axis at its intersection with the vertical axis.
View Solution

Question 28:

For the following partial differential equation,
\[ x \frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial x^2} + y \frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial y^2} = \frac{x^2 + y^2}{2} \]

which of the following option(s) is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) elliptic for \( x > 0 \) and \( y > 0 \)
  • (B) parabolic for \( x > 0 \) and \( y > 0 \)
  • (C) elliptic for \( x = 0 \) and \( y > 0 \)
  • (D) hyperbolic for \( x < 0 \) and \( y > 0 \)
Correct Answer: (A) elliptic for \( x > 0 \) and \( y > 0 \), (D) hyperbolic for \( x < 0 \) and \( y > 0 \)
View Solution

Question 29:

The elements that DO NOT increase the strength of structural steel are

  • (A) Carbon
  • (B) Manganese
  • (C) Sulphur
  • (D) Chlorine
Correct Answer: (C) Sulphur; (D) Chlorine
View Solution

Question 30:

Consider a balanced doubly-reinforced concrete section. If the material and other sectional properties remain unchanged, for which of the following cases will the section become under-reinforced?

  • (A) Area of tension reinforcement is increased.
  • (B) Area of compression reinforcement is increased.
  • (C) Area of tension reinforcement is decreased.
  • (D) Area of compression reinforcement is decreased.
Correct Answer: (B) Area of compression reinforcement is increased; (C) Area of tension reinforcement is decreased.
View Solution

Question 31:

The primary air pollutant(s) is/are

  • (A) Sulphur dioxide
  • (B) Lead
  • (C) Ozone
  • (D) Sulphuric acid
Correct Answer: (A) Sulphur dioxide; (B) Lead
View Solution

Question 32:

Consider the data of \( f(x) \) given in the table.


The value of \( f(1.5) \) estimated using second-order Newton's interpolation formula is ________ \(\textit{(rounded off to 2 decimal places).}\)

Correct Answer: 0.17
View Solution

Question 33:

The plane frame shown in the figure has fixed support at joint A, hinge support at joint F, and roller support at joint I. In the figure, A to I indicate joints of the frame.


If the axial deformations are neglected, the degree of kinematic indeterminacy is ______ \(\textit{(in integer)}\).

Correct Answer: 9
View Solution

Question 34:

An embankment is constructed with soil by maintaining the degree of saturation as 75% during compaction. The specific gravity of soil is 2.68 and the moisture content is 17% during compaction. Consider the unit weight of water as 10 kN/m\(^3\). The dry unit weight (in kN/m\(^3\)) of the compacted soil is __________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Correct Answer: 16.67
View Solution

Question 35:

A 30 cm diameter well fully penetrates an unconfined aquifer of saturated thickness 20 m with hydraulic conductivity of 10 m/day. Under the steady pumping rate for a long time, the drawdowns in two observation wells located at 10 m and 100 m from the pumping well are 5 m and 1 m, respectively. The corresponding pumping rate (in m\(^3\)/day) from the well is __________ \(\textit{(rounded off to 2 decimal places).}\)

Correct Answer: 1858.00
View Solution

Question 36:

What are the eigenvalues of the matrix


?

  • (A) \( 1, 2, 5 \)
  • (B) \( 1, 3, 4 \)
  • (C) \( -5, 1, 2 \)
  • (D) \( -5, -1, 2 \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 1, 2, 5 \)
View Solution

Question 37:

A vector field \( \vec{p} \) and a scalar field \( r \) are given by
\[ \vec{p} = \left( 2x^2 - 3xy + z^2 \right) \hat{i} + \left( 2y^2 - 3yz + x^2 \right) \hat{j} + \left( 2z^2 - 3xz + x^2 \right) \hat{k} \]
\[ r = 6x^2 + 4y^2 - z^2 - 9xyz - 2xy + 3xz - yz \]

Consider the statements P and Q:


P: Curl of the gradient of the scalar field \( r \) is a null vector.
Q: Divergence of curl of the vector field \( \vec{p} \) is zero.


Which one of the following options is CORRECT?

  • (A) Both P and Q are FALSE
  • (B) P is TRUE and Q is FALSE
  • (C) P is FALSE and Q is TRUE
  • (D) Both P and Q are TRUE
Correct Answer: (D) Both P and Q are TRUE
View Solution

Question 38:

Find the correct match between the plane stress states and the Mohr’s circles.



  • (A) (P)-(III); (Q)-(IV); (R)-(I); (S)-(II)
  • (B) (P)-(III); (Q)-(II); (R)-(I); (S)-(IV)
  • (C) (P)-(I); (Q)-(IV); (R)-(III); (S)-(II)
  • (D) (P)-(I); (Q)-(II); (R)-(III); (S)-(IV)
Correct Answer: (A) (P)-(III); (Q)-(IV); (R)-(I); (S)-(II)
View Solution

Question 39:

The beam shown in the figure is subjected to a uniformly distributed downward load of intensity \( q \) between supports \( A \) and \( B \). Considering the upward reactions as positive, the support reactions are:



  • (A) \( R_A = \frac{qL}{2}, R_B = \frac{5qL}{2}, R_C = -qL \)
  • (B) \( R_A = qL; R_B = \frac{5qL}{2}, R_C = \frac{qL}{2} \)
  • (C) \( R_A = \frac{qL}{2}, R_B = \frac{5qL}{2}, R_C = 0 \)
  • (D) \( R_A = \frac{qL}{2}, R_B = qL; R_C = \frac{qL}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( R_A = \frac{qL}{2}, R_B = \frac{5qL}{2}, R_C = -qL \)
View Solution

Question 40:

A homogeneous shaft PQR with fixed supports at both ends is subjected to a torsional moment \( T \) at point \( Q \), as shown in the figure. The polar moments of inertia of the portions \( PQ \) and \( QR \) of the shaft with circular cross-sections are \( J_1 \) and \( J_2 \), respectively. The torsional moment reactions at the supports \( P \) and \( R \) are \( T_P \) and \( T_R \), respectively.




\(\text{ If \( T_P / T_R = 4 \) and \( J_1 / J_2 = 2 \),}\) the ratio of the lengths \( L_1 / L_2 \) is:

  • (A) \( 0.50 \)
  • (B) \( 0.25 \)
  • (C) \( 4.00 \)
  • (D) \( 2.00 \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 0.50 \)
View Solution

Question 41:

A vertical smooth rigid retaining wall is supporting horizontal ground with dry cohesionless backfill having a friction angle of \( 30^\circ \). The inclinations of failure planes with respect to the major principal plane for Rankine’s active and passive earth pressure conditions, respectively, are:

  • (A) \( 30^\circ \) and \( 30^\circ \)
  • (B) \( 60^\circ \) and \( 60^\circ \)
  • (C) \( 30^\circ \) and \( 60^\circ \)
  • (D) \( 60^\circ \) and \( 30^\circ \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( 60^\circ \) and \( 60^\circ \)
View Solution

Question 42:

A flow velocity field \( \vec{V} = \vec{V}(x, y) \) for a fluid is represented by \( \vec{V} = 3 \hat{i} + (5x) \hat{j} \). In the context of the fluid and the flow, which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

  • (A) The fluid is incompressible and the flow is rotational.
  • (B) The fluid is incompressible and the flow is irrotational.
  • (C) The fluid is compressible and the flow is rotational.
  • (D) The fluid is compressible and the flow is irrotational.
Correct Answer: (A) The fluid is incompressible and the flow is rotational.
View Solution

Question 43:

For assessing the compliance with the emissions standards of incineration plants, a correction needs to be applied to the measured concentrations of air pollutants. The emission standard (based on 11% Oxygen) for HCl is 50 mg/Nm\(^3\) and the measured concentrations of HCl and Oxygen in flue gas are 42 mg/Nm\(^3\) and 13%, respectively. Assuming 21% Oxygen in air, the CORRECT statement is:

  • (A) No compliance, as the corrected HCl emission is greater than the emission standard.
  • (B) Compliance is there, as the corrected HCl emission is lesser than the emission standard.
  • (C) Compliance is there, as there is no need to apply the correction since Oxygen is greater than 11% and HCl emission is lesser than the emission standard.
  • (D) No compliance, as the Oxygen is greater than 11% in the flue gas.
Correct Answer: (A) No compliance, as the corrected HCl emission is greater than the emission standard.
View Solution

Question 44:

The free mean speed is 60 km/hr on a given road. The average space headway at jam density on this road is 8 m. For a linear speed-density relationship, the maximum flow (in veh/hr/lane) expected on the road is:

  • (A) 1875
  • (B) 938
  • (C) 2075
  • (D) 1038
Correct Answer: (A) 1875
View Solution

Question 45:

A map is prepared with a scale of 1:1000 and a contour interval of 1 m. If the distance between two adjacent contours on the map is 10 mm, the slope of the ground between the adjacent contours is:

  • (A) 30%
  • (B) 10%
  • (C) 35%
  • (D) 40%
Correct Answer: (B) 10%
View Solution

Question 46:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) Swell potential of soil decreases with an increase in the shrinkage limit.
  • (B) Both loose and dense sands with different initial void ratios can attain similar void ratio at large strain during shearing.
  • (C) Among the several corrections to be applied to the SPT-N value, the dilatancy correction is applied before all other corrections.
  • (D) In electrical resistivity tomography, the depth of current penetration is half of the spacing between the electrodes.
Correct Answer: (A) and (B)
View Solution

Question 47:

The return period of a large earthquake for a given region is 200 years. Assuming that earthquake occurrence follows Poisson's distribution, the probability that it will be exceeded at least once in 50 years is ______ % (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 22%
View Solution

Question 48:

A \(2 m \times 2 m\) tank of \(3 m\) height has inflow, outflow, and stirring mechanisms. Initially, the tank was half-filled with fresh water. At \(t = 0\), an inflow of a salt solution of concentration \(5 g/m^3\) at the rate of \(2 litres/s\) and an outflow of the well stirred mixture at the rate of \(1 litre/s\) are initiated. This process can be modelled using the following differential equation: \[ \frac{dm}{dt} + \frac{m}{6000 + t} = 0.01 \]
where \(m\) is the mass (grams) of the salt at time \(t\) (seconds). The mass of the salt in the tank at 75% of its capacity is ______ grams (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Correct Answer: Approximately 25.00 grams
View Solution

Question 49:

The plane truss shown in the figure has 13 joints and 22 members. The truss is made of a homogeneous, prismatic, linearly elastic material. All members have identical axial rigidity. Joints A to M indicate the joints of the truss. The truss has pin supports at joints A and L and roller support at joint K. The truss is subjected to a 10 kN vertically downward force at joint H and a 10 kN horizontal force in the rightward direction at joint B as shown.



The magnitude of the reaction (in kN) at the pin support L is ______ (rounded off to 1 decimal place).

Correct Answer: 7.5 kN
View Solution

Question 50:

An inverted T-shaped concrete beam (B1) in the figure, with centroidal axis \(X - X\), is subjected to an effective prestressing force of 1000 kN acting at the bottom kern point of the beam cross-section. Also consider an identical concrete beam (B2) with the same grade of concrete but without any prestressing force.



The additional cracking moment (in kN.m) that can be carried by beam B1 in comparison to beam B2 is __ (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 300 kN.m
View Solution

Question 51:

The initial cost of an equipment is Rs. 1,00,000. Its salvage value at the end of accounting life of 5 years is Rs. 10,000. The difference in depreciation (in Rs.) computed using 'double-declining balance method' and 'straight line method' of depreciation in Year-2 is ______ (in positive integer).

Correct Answer: 6000
View Solution

Question 52:

A slab panel with an effective depth of 250 mm is reinforced with 0.2% main reinforcement using 8 mm diameter steel bars. The uniform center-to-center spacing (in mm) at which the 8 mm diameter bars are placed in the slab panel is ______ (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 101 mm
View Solution

Question 53:

The total primary consolidation settlement (\(S_c\)) of a building constructed on a 10 m thick saturated clay layer is estimated to be 50 mm. After 300 days of the construction of the building, primary consolidation settlement was reported as 10 mm. The additional time (in days) required to achieve 50% of \(S_c\) will be ______ (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 1475 days
View Solution

Question 54:

An infinite slope is made up of cohesionless soil with seepage parallel to and up to the sloping surface. The angle of slope is \(30^\circ\) with respect to horizontal ground surface. The unit weights of the saturated soil and water are \(20 kN/m^3\) and \(10 kN/m^3\), respectively. The minimum angle of shearing resistance of the soil (in degrees) for the critically stable condition of the slope is ______ (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 60 degrees
View Solution

Question 55:

A soil sample was consolidated at a cell pressure of 20 kPa and a back pressure of 10 kPa for 24 hours during a consolidated undrained (CU) triaxial test. The cell pressure was increased to 30 kPa on the next day and it resulted in the development of pore water pressure of 1 kPa. The soil sample failed when the axial stress was gradually increased to 50 kPa. The pore water pressure at failure was recorded as 21 kPa. The value of Skempton’s pore pressure parameter \( B \) for the soil sample is ______ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Correct Answer: Approximately 0.10
View Solution

Question 56:

The ordinates of a 1-hour unit hydrograph (UH) are given below:



These ordinates are used to derive a 3-hour UH. The peak discharge (in m\(^3\)/s) for the derived 3-hour UH is ______ (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 150 m\(^3\)/s
View Solution

Question 57:

A standard round bottom triangular canal section as shown in the figure has a bed slope of 1 in 200. Consider the Chezy's coefficient as 150 m\(^{1/2}\)/s.


The normal depth of flow, \( y \) (in meters), for carrying a discharge of 20 m\(^3\)/s is __ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Correct Answer: 2.12 \(\text{m} \)
View Solution

Question 58:

A spillway has unit discharge of \(7.5 m^3/s/m\). The flow depth at the downstream horizontal apron is \(0.5 m\). The tail water depth (in meters) required to form a hydraulic jump is ______ \(\ textit {(rounded off to 2 decimal places).}\)

Correct Answer: \( 4.45 \, \text{m} \)
View Solution

Question 59:

A \(5 m \times 5 m\) closed tank of \(10 m\) height contains water and oil, and is connected to an overhead water reservoir as shown in the figure. Use \(\gamma_w = 10 kN/m^3\) and Specific gravity of oil = 0.8.


The total force (in kN) due to pressure on the side \(PQR\) of the tank is __ (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: \( 1350 \, \text{kN} \)
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Question 60:

Activated carbon is used to remove a pollutant from wastewater in a mixed batch reactor, which follows first-order reaction kinetics. At a reaction rate of \(0.38 /day\), the time (in days) required to remove the pollutant by 95% is ______ (rounded off to 1 decimal place).

Correct Answer: 7.88 days
View Solution

Question 61:

A water treatment plant treats 25 MLD water with a natural alkalinity of 4.0 mg/L (as CaCO\(_3\)). It is estimated that, during coagulation of this water, 450 kg/day of calcium bicarbonate (Ca(HCO\(_3\))\(_2\)) is required based on the alum dosage. Consider the atomic weights as: Ca=40, H=1, C=12, O=16. The quantity of pure quick lime, CaO (in kg) required for this process per day is ______ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Correct Answer: 155.56 kg
View Solution

Question 62:

The number of trains and their corresponding speeds for a curved Broad Gauge section with 437 m radius, are

20 trains travel at a speed of 40 km/hr
15 trains travel at a speed of 50 km/hr
12 trains travel at a speed of 60 km/hr
8 trains travel at a speed of 70 km/hr
3 trains travel at a speed of 80 km/hr

If the gauge (center-to-center distance between the rail heads) is taken as 1750 mm, the required equilibrium cant (in mm) will be ______ (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: 88 mm
View Solution

Question 63:

The figure presents the trajectories of six vehicles within a time-space domain. The number in the parentheses represents unique identification of each vehicle.



The mean speed (in km/hr) of the vehicles in the entire time-space domain is __ (rounded off to the nearest integer).

Correct Answer: \( 48 \, \text{km/hr} \)
View Solution

Question 64:

The following data is obtained from an axle load survey at a site:

Average rear axle load = 12000 kg
Number of commercial vehicles = 800 per day

The pavement at this site would be reconstructed over a period of 5 years from the date of survey. The design life of the reconstructed pavement is 15 years. Use the standard axle load as 8160 kg and the annual average vehicle growth rate as 4.0%. Assume that Equivalent Wheel Load Factor (EWLF) and Vehicle Damage Factor (VDF) are equal.

The cumulative standard axle (in msa) for the pavement design is ______ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Correct Answer: 7.31 msa
View Solution

Question 65:

A bird is resting on a point P at a height of 8 m above the Mean Sea Level (MSL). Upon hearing a loud noise, the bird flies parallel to the ground surface and reaches a point Q which is located at a height of 3 m above MSL. The ground surface has a falling gradient of 1 in 2. Ignoring the effects of curvature and refraction, the horizontal distance (in meters) between points P and Q is _____ (in integer).

Correct Answer: 10
View Solution

GATE Questions

  • 1.
    The ceiling function of a real number \( x \), denoted by \( ce(x) \), is defined as the smallest integer that is greater than or equal to \( x \). Similarly, the floor function, denoted by \( fl(x) \), is defined as the largest integer that is smaller than or equal to \( x \). Which one of the following statements is NOT correct for all possible values of \( x \)?

      • \( ce(x) \geq x \)
      • \( fl(x) \leq x \)
      • \( ce(x) \geq fl(x) \)
      • \( fl(x)<ce(x) \)

    • 2.

      Fish : Shoal :: Lion : _________
      Select the correct option to complete the analogy.

        • Pride
        • School
        • Forest
        • Series

      • 3.

        A company uses 3000 units of a part annually. The units are priced as given in the table below. It costs ₹150 to place an order. Carrying costs are 40 percent of the purchase price per unit on an annual basis. The minimum total annual cost is ₹ _________ (rounded off to 1 decimal place).


         


          • 4.
            Identify the grammatically correct sentence:

              • It is I who am responsible for this fiasco.
              • It is myself who is responsible for this fiasco.
              • It is I who is responsible for this fiasco.
              • It is I who are responsible for this fiasco.

            • 5.

              A heat pump, operating in reversed Carnot cycle, maintains a steady air temperature of 300 K inside an auditorium. The heat pump receives heat from the ambient air. The ambient air temperature is 280 K. Heat loss from the auditorium is 15 kW. The power consumption of the heat pump is _________ kW (rounded off to 2 decimal places).


                • 6.

                  Two plates of thickness 10 mm each are to be joined by a transverse fillet weld on one side and the resulting structure is loaded as shown in the figure below. If the ultimate tensile strength of the weld material is 150 MPa and the factor of safety to be used is 3, the minimum length of the weld required to ensure that the weld does NOT fail is ____________ mm (rounded off to 2 decimal places).


                   

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