CUET UG Psychology (324) - 2025 Question Paper with Solution

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In advertising and persuasion, messages can be broadly categorized into two types: rational and emotional.

Rational appeals focus on logic, facts, and practical benefits. They provide information about the product's features, performance, and value.

Emotional appeals aim to evoke feelings such as happiness, fear, nostalgia, or excitement to create a connection with the consumer.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The advertisement for the pressure cooker highlights two key benefits:

1. It saves fuel: This is a practical, functional advantage.

2. It is economical: This appeals to the consumer's logical desire to save money.

Both of these points are based on reason and tangible outcomes rather than feelings. Therefore, the advertisement uses a rational message characteristic to persuade potential buyers.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The message characteristic being highlighted is Rational because it focuses on logical arguments like cost-saving and efficiency.
Quick Tip: When analyzing advertisements, look for the core message. If it presents facts, statistics, or practical benefits (like saving money, time, or energy), it's a rational appeal. If it tells a story, uses humor, or tries to make you feel a certain way, it's an emotional appeal.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Let's define the key terms:

Aptitude: A natural ability or potential to learn a particular skill. Ananya's pursuit of a medical career suggests an aptitude for science.

Personality: An individual's unique and relatively stable patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving.

Interest: A preference for engaging in a particular activity. It is driven by enjoyment and curiosity, not necessarily by skill level.

Intelligence: The overall capacity to understand the world, think rationally, and use resources effectively when faced with challenges.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The question states that Ananya plays the guitar and sings in her free time because it "lifts her spirits," even though she is "not a great singer." This indicates that she engages in the activity for pleasure and emotional satisfaction, not because she has a high level of skill or potential in it. This perfectly matches the definition of an interest. Her aptitude is in the science stream, which she is pursuing as a career.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The attribute described is an Interest, as it is an activity Ananya enjoys and chooses to do in her leisure time for personal fulfillment, regardless of her skill level.
Quick Tip: Remember the key difference: Aptitude is about what you can do or have the potential to do well. Interest is about what you like to do. You can be interested in something without having a high aptitude for it.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The definition provided in the question is the classic, formal definition of Emotional Intelligence (EI or EQ), as originally proposed by psychologists Peter Salovey and John Mayer. It encompasses both understanding oneself and understanding others.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's break down the definition:


Monitor one's own and other's emotions: This refers to the awareness of emotions in oneself and others (empathy).
Discriminate among them: This involves accurately identifying and labeling different feelings.
Use the information to guide one's thinking and actions: This is the application of emotional knowledge to manage one's behavior and relationships effectively.

While related, the other options are less precise:

Social intelligence and Interpersonal intelligence (from Gardner's theory) primarily focus on understanding and navigating social situations and relationships with others. They don't explicitly include the component of monitoring one's own emotions.
Abstract intelligence is the ability to reason with non-concrete concepts and ideas.

The provided definition uniquely combines both the intrapersonal (one's own) and interpersonal (other's) aspects of emotion, which is the core of Emotional Intelligence.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct term for the ability described is Emotional intelligence.
Quick Tip: For exams, it's highly beneficial to memorize the standard definitions of key psychological concepts like Emotional Intelligence. The definition given in this question is a textbook one.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Psychological tests can be classified based on their format.


Verbal tests rely on language skills (e.g., vocabulary tests, reading comprehension).
Non-verbal tests use pictures, figures, or diagrams and minimize the use of language.
Performance tests are a type of non-verbal test that requires the test-taker to manipulate physical objects or materials to solve a problem.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The Kohs Block Design Test requires the individual to physically arrange painted wooden blocks to replicate a pattern shown on a card. This task involves hands-on manipulation of objects and problem-solving through action rather than words. This is the exact definition of a performance test. While it is also a non-verbal test (as language is not required to perform the task), "performance test" is a more specific and accurate classification because it highlights the element of physical manipulation.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Kohs Block Design Test is a classic example of a Performance test.
Quick Tip: Performance tests are crucial for assessing cognitive abilities in individuals who may have language barriers, communication disorders, or are from different cultural backgrounds. Other examples include Picture Arrangement and Object Assembly subtests from the Wechsler intelligence scales.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In psychology, giftedness is a term used to describe individuals who exhibit exceptionally high intellectual ability and/or superior talent in one or more specific areas, such as academics, creativity, or leadership. An IQ score is often used as a benchmark for intellectual giftedness.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Arshiya's profile shows multiple indicators of giftedness:

(A) High IQ: Her IQ of 135 is well above the average of 100. Generally, an IQ score of 130 or higher is considered to be in the gifted range, placing her in the top 2-3% of the population.
(B) Exceptional Talent: She demonstrates high ability in multiple domains: academics ("scores at the top of her class"), strategic thinking ("international chess player"), and creative/artistic skill ("remarkable beat player").

While terms like "smart," "intelligent," and "creative" all apply to her, "gifted" is the most appropriate and comprehensive psychological classification that encompasses both her high general intellectual ability (as measured by IQ) and her exceptional specific talents.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Given her high IQ and outstanding achievements in multiple areas, Arshiya can be classified as Gifted.
Quick Tip: Remember that "gifted" is a technical term in psychology and education. While all gifted people are intelligent, not all intelligent people meet the criteria for being classified as gifted. The term implies an exceptional level of ability.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Indian tradition conceptualizes intelligence in a holistic manner, often referred to as buddhi. Unlike many Western models that focus primarily on cognitive abilities, the Indian concept integrates cognitive, social, emotional, and practical aspects of life. It views intelligence as being tied to the well-being of the self and the larger society.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Based on the Indian tradition, intelligence comprises several key facets:

(A) Cognitive capacity: This includes skills like understanding, discrimination, problem-solving, and effective communication (Viveka).
(B) Social competence: This involves skills like respect for elders and social order, concern for others, and empathy (Samajika chetna).
(C) Emotional competence: This includes self-regulation, self-monitoring of emotions, honesty, and politeness (Sama/Dama).
(E) Entrepreneurial competence: This refers to qualities like commitment, persistence, patience, hard work, and vigilance (Udyama).

(D) Individualistic orientation is generally considered a characteristic of Western cultural perspectives, which prioritize individual achievement and independence. In contrast, many Indian traditions emphasize interconnectedness and collective well-being. Therefore, it is not considered a core facet of intelligence in the Indian tradition.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct facets of intelligence in the Indian tradition from the given options are (A) Cognitive capacity, (B) Social competence, (C) Emotional competence, and (E) Entrepreneurial competence. This corresponds to option (3).
Quick Tip: Remember that non-Western concepts of intelligence are often broader and more integrated with social and cultural values than standard Western IQ-based models. The Indian concept of buddhi is a prime example of this holistic approach.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question is based on Howard Gardner's Theory of Multiple Intelligences, which suggests that human intelligence is not a single, general ability but is composed of several distinct types. The options in List-II represent four of these intelligences.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each profession in List-I with the most relevant intelligence from List-II:


(A) Poets and writers: Their primary skill is the mastery of language, including writing, speaking, and understanding complex meanings. This corresponds to (IV) Linguistic intelligence.
(B) Scientists: They excel in reasoning, recognizing patterns, analyzing problems logically, and performing mathematical calculations. This corresponds to (III) Logical-Mathematical intelligence.
(C) Philosophers and spiritual leaders: Their work involves deep introspection, self-reflection, and understanding of the human condition, one's own feelings, and motivations. This corresponds to (I) Intrapersonal intelligence (self-smart).
(D) Athletes, dancers and gymnasts: They possess exceptional control over their body movements and have excellent hand-eye coordination and dexterity. This corresponds to (II) Bodily-Kinaesthetic intelligence.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Based on the matching, the correct sequence is:
(A) maps to (IV), (B) maps to (III), (C) maps to (I), and (D) maps to (II).
This combination is given in option (D).
Quick Tip: To master questions on Gardner's theory, associate each type of intelligence with a key profession or skill. For example: Linguistic -> Writer, Logical-Mathematical -> Scientist, Spatial -> Architect, Bodily-Kinaesthetic -> Dancer, Musical -> Composer, Interpersonal -> Teacher, Intrapersonal -> Philosopher, Naturalist -> Biologist.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks to identify a specific method of psychological assessment. Let's define the options:

Interview: A data collection method involving direct, spoken questions.
Self-report: A method where individuals provide information about themselves, typically through questionnaires or surveys.
Psychological test: A standardized instrument designed to measure psychological attributes.
Case-study: A comprehensive and in-depth investigation of a single person, group, or event. It often uses multiple methods (like interviews, tests, and observations) to gather rich, detailed information.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The description in the question — "an in-depth study," "of the individual," considering "psychological attributes, psychological history," and "psycho-social and physical environment" — perfectly aligns with the definition of a case-study. A case-study is holistic, aiming to understand the person as a whole by examining various facets of their life. The other options (interview, self-report, psychological test) are tools that might be used within a case-study, but they are not the comprehensive study itself.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The research method described is a Case-study.
Quick Tip: Think of a case study as a detailed biography from a psychological perspective. Its strength is the depth of information it provides, but its weakness is that the findings may not be generalizable to other people.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

A verbal test is a type of psychological assessment that primarily relies on language—both spoken and written—to measure abilities. This includes tasks like defining words, understanding written passages, and verbal reasoning. In contrast, non-verbal and performance tests minimize the use of language.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze each test:

(A) Stanford-Binet Test: This is a comprehensive intelligence test that includes a wide range of subtests. A significant portion of these subtests are on the Verbal Scale, assessing knowledge, vocabulary, and verbal reasoning. Therefore, it is categorized as containing a verbal test.
(B) Alexander's Passalong Test: This is a performance test requiring the manipulation of colored blocks in a tray. It is non-verbal.
(C) Raven's Progressive Matrices: This is a classic non-verbal test that measures fluid intelligence by asking the test-taker to identify the missing piece in a visual pattern.
(D) Draw-a-Man Test: Developed by Goodenough, this is a non-verbal test of cognitive development for children, where intelligence is estimated based on the details included in a drawing of a person.

Of the options listed, only the Stanford-Binet Test has a major verbal component.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The only test that can be categorized as a verbal test is the Stanford-Binet Test. Thus, option (A) is correct.
Quick Tip: To quickly distinguish between test types, ask yourself: "Does this test require reading, writing, or understanding complex language?" If yes, it's verbal. If it's about patterns, pictures, or physical objects, it's likely non-verbal or a performance test.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks for the correct chronological order of Sigmund Freud's five stages of psychosexual development. According to Freud, personality develops during childhood through these stages, where the child's pleasure-seeking energies from the id become focused on different erogenous zones.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The correct sequence of Freud's psychosexual stages is as follows:

(A) Oral Stage (Birth to 18 months): Pleasure centers on the mouth—sucking, biting, chewing. This corresponds to (B).
(B) Anal Stage (18 to 36 months): Pleasure focuses on bowel and bladder elimination; coping with demands for control. This corresponds to (A).
(C) Phallic Stage (3 to 6 years): Pleasure zone is the genitals; coping with incestuous sexual feelings (Oedipus/Electra complex). This corresponds to (E).
(D) Latency Stage (6 to puberty): A phase of dormant sexual feelings. This corresponds to (D).
(E) Genital Stage (Puberty on): Maturation of sexual interests. This corresponds to (C).

Therefore, the correct order of the given letters is B, A, E, D, C.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence is (B) Oral, (A) Anal, (E) Phallic, (D) Latency, (C) Genital. This matches option (B).
Quick Tip: A useful mnemonic to remember the order of Freud's stages is: "**O**ld **A**ge **P**ensioners **L**ove **G**rapes" for **O**ral, **A**nal, **P**hallic, **L**atency, **G**enital.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question refers to Raymond Cattell's trait theory of personality. Cattell distinguished between two levels of traits:

Surface Traits: These are observable patterns of behavior that are on the surface. They are numerous and are the result of the interaction of source traits.
Source Traits: These are the deeper, more fundamental, and underlying structures of personality. They are fewer in number and are the primary cause of our consistent behaviors.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the given options based on Cattell's theory:

(A) stable: Source traits are considered the core, stable, and enduring aspects of personality. This statement is correct.
(B) result of the interaction between surface traits: This is incorrect. It's the other way around: surface traits are the result of the interaction between source traits.
(C) considered as the building blocks of personality: Source traits are seen as the fundamental, underlying factors or "building blocks" from which personality is constructed. This statement is correct.
(D) quite generalised dispositions: This description is more fitting for surface traits, which are more general and directly observable clusters of behavior.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct statements describing source traits are (A) and (C). Therefore, option (3) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Remember the hierarchy: Source traits are the deep roots (stable, building blocks) that cause the visible parts of the tree (surface traits, observable behaviors).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires matching different theoretical approaches to personality with their core descriptions.

Interactional Approach: Argues that behavior is a function of the interaction between personality traits and situational factors.
Type Approach: Categorizes individuals into discrete, broad types (e.g., introvert vs. extrovert).
Trait Approach: Aims to identify and measure stable personality characteristics or traits that differ among individuals.
Cultural Approach: Studies how personality is shaped by cultural norms, values, and the ecological environment.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each approach from List-I to its definition in List-II:

(A) Interactional approach directly corresponds to (III) "Situational characteristics play an important role in determining our behaviour," as this approach emphasizes the person-situation interaction.
(B) Type approach matches with (IV) "Examines certain broad patterns in the observed behavioural characteristics of the individuals," as it classifies people into broad categories.
(C) Trait approach correctly pairs with (II) "Focuses on identifying primary characteristics of the people," as its goal is to find the fundamental traits of personality.
(D) Cultural approach is defined by (I) "Understands personality in relation to the features of ecological and cultural environment."


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct matching is (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), and (D)-(I). This combination is found in option (3).
Quick Tip: Associate a keyword with each approach: Interactional -> Situation, Type -> Categories, Trait -> Characteristics, Cultural -> Environment. This can help you quickly match definitions in exams.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for a personality assessment technique that involves categorizing individuals. Let's look at the options:

Interview: A conversation to gather information. It doesn't inherently categorize people.
Behavioural rating: A method where an observer rates an individual's behaviour on a scale (e.g., from 1 to 5). It measures the degree of a trait, rather than placing someone in a rigid category.
Nomination: A sociometric technique where members of a group are asked to choose or "nominate" other members who best fit a particular criterion (e.g., "Who is the most cooperative?"). This process directly puts individuals into categories based on peer perception.
Situational test: Involves observing an individual's behaviour in a created situation to see how they respond. It assesses behaviour, but doesn't primarily aim to categorize the person.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The key phrase in the question is "puts individuals into certain categories". The nomination technique is explicitly designed for this purpose. For instance, in a classroom, a teacher might ask students to nominate three classmates they would most like to work with on a project. The results would categorize students based on their perceived desirability as partners.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The technique that puts individuals into categories based on behavioural qualities is Nomination.
Quick Tip: Nomination is a powerful tool in social psychology and organizational settings to understand group structure, identify leaders, and understand social status within a group.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

In Carl Jung's analytical psychology, archetypes are universal, archaic patterns and images that derive from the collective unconscious. The collective unconscious is the part of the psyche that is inherited and contains the accumulated experiences of all preceding generations. Archetypes are primordial images that are common to all humanity.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the options in the context of Jung's theory:

Superiority complex: A concept from Alfred Adler's psychology.
Superego: A concept from Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic theory, representing internalized societal rules.
Archetypes: 'God' (representing the ultimate spiritual authority or the Self) and 'Mother Earth' (representing the nurturing, life-giving Great Mother) are classic examples of universal symbols found across cultures and throughout history. They are perfect examples of Jungian archetypes.
Basic anxiety: A concept from Karen Horney's theory.


Step 3: Final Answer:

'God' and 'Mother earth' are powerful, universal symbols that reside in the collective unconscious, making them prime examples of Archetypes.
Quick Tip: Remember other key Jungian archetypes like the Persona (the social mask), the Shadow (the dark side of personality), the Anima (the feminine side of a man), the Animus (the masculine side of a woman), and the Self (the unified consciousness and unconsciousness).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question addresses response biases, which are systematic tendencies to respond to test or survey items on some basis other than the specific content of the items.

Acquiescence: The tendency to agree with statements ("yea-saying") or disagree with statements ("nay-saying") regardless of their content.
Halo effect: A cognitive bias where the overall impression of a person influences the observer's feelings and thoughts about that person's specific traits.
Social desirability: The tendency to respond in a way that will be viewed favorably by others.
Extreme response bias: The tendency to only select the most extreme options on a rating scale (e.g., "strongly agree" or "strongly disagree").


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The definition provided in the question, "to agree with items irrespective of their content," is the precise definition of the acquiescence response bias. For example, a person with this bias might agree with both the statement "I am an outgoing person" and the statement "I prefer to spend time alone."


Step 3: Final Answer:

The tendency described is called Acquiescence.
Quick Tip: To avoid acquiescence bias in surveys, researchers often use a mix of positively and negatively worded items. This forces the respondent to read the items carefully instead of just agreeing with everything.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Psychologist William James made a classic distinction between two aspects of the self:

The "I" (Self as Subject): This is the self that is the agent, the knower, the actor. It is the part of you that experiences, thinks, and feels in the present moment. It is the self that is "actively engaging."
The "Me" (Self as Object): This is the self that is known, observed, and described. It is the collection of beliefs, traits, and characteristics you hold about yourself (e.g., "I am tall," "I am a student").


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The question describes the self as an "actor" that "actively engages in the process of knowing." This directly refers to the "I" – the self as the agent or subject. The self as an object would be the knowledge that is gained from this process (the "itself" that is known). The "ideal self" is who we want to be, and the "real self" refers to who we actually are (concepts from Carl Rogers).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The status of the self as an active agent engaged in knowing is the self as subject.
Quick Tip: A simple way to remember this is: The "I" does the looking. The "Me" is what is seen in the mirror. The question describes the self that is doing the looking.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks to identify the major school of psychology to which Carl Rogers's therapy belongs.

Psychodynamic approach (Freud): Focuses on unconscious conflicts from the past.
Cognitive approach (Beck, Ellis): Focuses on changing maladaptive thought patterns.
Behavioural approach (Skinner, Watson): Focuses on changing observable behaviours through principles of learning.
Humanistic approach (Rogers, Maslow): Focuses on personal growth, self-actualization, and the individual's subjective experience. It emphasizes the inherent goodness of people.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Carl Rogers is one of the founders of the humanistic approach to psychology. His client-centered therapy (also called person-centered therapy) is a cornerstone of this school. It is based on the belief that every individual has the capacity for growth and self-healing, provided a supportive therapeutic environment characterized by genuineness, unconditional positive regard, and empathy.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Client-centered therapy is based on the Humanistic approach.
Quick Tip: For exams, associate key figures with their therapeutic approaches: Rogers -> Humanistic/Client-Centered, Freud -> Psychodynamic/Psychoanalysis, Beck -> Cognitive, Ellis -> REBT (Cognitive-Behavioral), Skinner -> Behavioural/Operant Conditioning.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The trait approach to personality identifies and measures stable, consistent individual characteristics (traits). The type approach, in contrast, classifies people into distinct, discrete categories (types). The question asks to identify the theorist who does not belong to the trait approach.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's review the theorists listed:

Costa and McCrae: They are modern trait theorists famous for developing the "Big Five" or Five-Factor Model of personality (Openness, Conscientiousness, Extraversion, Agreeableness, Neuroticism).
Allport: Gordon Allport is considered a pioneer of the trait approach, distinguishing between cardinal, central, and secondary traits.
Sheldon: William Sheldon is known for his constitutional theory of personality, which is a type theory. He categorized people into three body types (somatotypes): endomorph, mesomorph, and ectomorph, and linked these types to specific personality characteristics.
Cattell: Raymond Cattell was a prominent trait theorist who used factor analysis to identify 16 primary source traits of personality (the 16PF).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Costa and McCrae, Allport, and Cattell are all key figures in the trait approach. Sheldon is associated with the type approach. Therefore, Sheldon is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Remember the key difference: Trait theories put you on a continuum (e.g., you are more or less extraverted). Type theories put you in a box (e.g., you are an endomorph). Sheldon's body types are distinct boxes.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is a projective psychological test. Projective tests present ambiguous stimuli to a person and ask them to respond, with the idea that their responses will reveal their underlying motives, concerns, and way of seeing the social world.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's identify the contributions of the people listed:

Morgan and Murray: Christiana Morgan and Henry Murray developed the TAT at Harvard University in the 1930s to explore the underlying dynamics of personality, such as internal conflicts, drives, and motives.
Binet and Simon: Developed the first practical intelligence test, the Binet-Simon scale.
Miller and Dollard: Known for their work on social learning theory and the frustration-aggression hypothesis.
Costa and McCrae: Developed the Five-Factor Model of personality.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) was developed by Morgan and Murray.
Quick Tip: Associate famous tests with their creators: TAT -> Murray & Morgan; Rorschach -> Hermann Rorschach; Binet-Simon Scale -> Binet & Simon; 16PF -> Raymond Cattell.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

PTSD is an anxiety disorder that can develop after a person is exposed to a traumatic event, such as warfare, sexual assault, a natural disaster, or a serious accident. The name of the disorder describes its key features.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's break down the acronym:

P - Post: Means "after," indicating the disorder develops after the event.
T - Traumatic: Refers to the nature of the causal event.
S - Stress: Describes the psychological and physiological response.
D - Disorder: Indicates it is a clinically recognized condition.

Combining these gives Post Traumatic Stress Disorder. The other options use incorrect terms like "Pre" (meaning before) or "Situational" instead of "Stress".


Step 3: Final Answer:

The full form of PTSD is Post Traumatic Stress Disorder.
Quick Tip: When memorizing acronyms for disorders, pay close attention to each word. In PTSD, the "Post" and "Traumatic" parts are crucial, as they define the cause and timing of the disorder.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Rational Emotive Therapy (RET), developed by Albert Ellis, is based on the A-B-C-D-E model of psychological disturbance and change.

A: Activating Event or Antecedent Event.
B: Beliefs about the event (these can be rational or irrational).
C: Consequences (emotional and behavioural) that result from the beliefs.
D: Disputation of irrational beliefs.
E: Effective new philosophy or rational beliefs.

The therapeutic process follows this logical sequence.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's map the given statements to the A-B-C-D-E model:

(C) "Antecedent events which caused psychological distress are noted" corresponds to A (Activating Event). This is the starting point.
(B) "Client's irrational beliefs which are distorting present reality are identified" corresponds to B (Beliefs). This is the next step, linking the event to the feelings.
(A) "Negative emotions and behaviours as consequences... are identified and noted" corresponds to C (Consequences). This clarifies the problem.
(D) "The irrational beliefs are refuted by the therapist..." corresponds to D (Disputation). This is the core therapeutic intervention.
(E) "Eventually, the client is able to replace the irrational beliefs with the rational ones" corresponds to E (Effective new philosophy). This is the goal of the therapy.

Therefore, the correct sequence is C, B, A, D, E.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence for the RET process is (C), (B), (A), (D), (E), which is option (2).
Quick Tip: Remember the core idea of RET/REBT: It is not the event (A) that causes the emotional consequence (C), but our beliefs (B) about the event. The therapy works by disputing (D) these beliefs.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question refers to cognitive consistency theories, which propose that people are motivated to maintain coherence among their cognitions (beliefs, attitudes). Several theorists proposed models for this.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Leon Festinger proposed the theory of Cognitive Dissonance, which deals with the discomfort felt when holding conflicting beliefs or when actions conflict with beliefs.
Fritz Heider proposed the Balance Theory, often called the P-O-X model. It describes attitude structures in a triad (P-Person, O-Other person, X-Attitude object). The theory states that people prefer a "balanced" state where the attitudes in the triad are consistent. An "imbalanced" state creates tension, motivating a change to restore balance.
Richard LaPiere is famous for his 1934 study showing a discrepancy between attitudes and behaviors regarding prejudice.
Gordon Allport was a pioneering psychologist in the study of personality and attitudes, but he is not primarily associated with a "balance" theory.

The specific concept of 'balance' is central to Fritz Heider's theory.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The concept of 'balance' in attitude change theory was used by Fritz Heider.
Quick Tip: Associate keywords with consistency theorists: Heider -> Balance, Festinger -> Dissonance. Heider's theory is often visualized with triangles, where you multiply the signs (+/-) of the relationships to check for balance.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Attitudes are evaluations of people, objects, or ideas. Social psychologists describe attitudes as having several key properties or dimensions that determine their strength and impact.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's examine the listed properties:

Valence: This refers to the direction of the attitude—whether it is positive, negative, or neutral. This is a fundamental property.
Centrality: This describes how important an attitude is to a person's overall value system. A central attitude is closely linked to one's core values and self-concept. This is a significant property.
Extremeness: This refers to how strong the valence is. An attitude can be slightly positive or extremely positive. This is also a significant property.
Quantity: This is not a recognized property of a single attitude. While a person has a "quantity" of different attitudes, the term itself doesn't describe a characteristic of any one attitude. Other properties include simplicity/complexity (how many beliefs make up the attitude).


Step 3: Final Answer:

Valence, Centrality, and Extremeness are all significant properties of attitude. Quantity is not.
Quick Tip: Remember the three core properties of an attitude: Valence (is it +/-?), Extremeness (how +/- is it?), and Centrality (how important is it to you?).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks about a specific model of attitude change known as the "two-step concept." This refers to a particular theory about how persuasive messages can lead to changes in attitude.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


S. M. Mohsin, an Indian psychologist, proposed a two-step concept of attitude change. In this model, the first step is identification, where the target of persuasion develops a liking or affinity for the source of the message. The second step is the actual attitude change, which is more likely to occur once identification has taken place.
Heider proposed the Balance Theory.
Janis is known for his work on groupthink.
Triplett is credited with conducting the first social psychology experiment on social facilitation.

The "two-step concept" is specifically attributed to Mohsin. (Note: This is different from the "two-step flow of communication" model by Katz and Lazarsfeld, which deals with media influence via opinion leaders).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The two-step concept of attitude change was proposed by Mohsin.
Quick Tip: While other models like the Elaboration Likelihood Model (ELM) have two routes (central and peripheral), the specific term "two-step concept" in many psychology curricula, especially in India, refers to Mohsin's model of identification followed by attitude change.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The experiment conducted by Leon Festinger and James Carlsmith in 1959 is one of the most classic studies in social psychology. It aimed to test the theory of cognitive dissonance. Cognitive dissonance is the mental discomfort experienced by a person who holds two or more contradictory beliefs, ideas, or values, or is confronted by new information that conflicts with existing beliefs, ideas, or values.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

In the experiment, participants were asked to perform a very dull and repetitive task. Afterwards, they were paid either
(1 or
)20 to tell the next participant that the task was enjoyable and interesting. The key finding was that those who were paid only
(1 (insufficient justification for lying) later rated the boring task as more enjoyable than those who were paid
)20. The
(1 group experienced high dissonance (My behavior of lying contradicts my belief that the task was boring), and since the external justification (
)1) was low, they reduced the dissonance by changing their attitude to believe the task was actually somewhat fun.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The famous Festinger and Carlsmith experiment was designed to demonstrate Cognitive dissonance.
Quick Tip: The key takeaway from the Festinger & Carlsmith (
(1 vs.
)20) experiment is the principle of "insufficient justification." When we do something that goes against our beliefs without a good external reason, we are likely to change our beliefs to match our actions.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify a strategy that would be ineffective, or even harmful, in reducing prejudice. A self-fulfilling prophecy in this context is a process where a victim of prejudice internalizes the negative stereotypes and starts to behave in ways that confirm those stereotypes, thereby "proving" the prejudice right in the eyes of the prejudiced person.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the effectiveness of each strategy:

(A) Minimising opportunities for learning prejudices: This is an effective prevention strategy, as prejudice is often learned through socialisation.
(B) Encouraging the tendency towards self-fulfilling prophecy: This would be highly counterproductive. Encouraging victims to conform to negative stereotypes would strengthen and perpetuate the prejudice, not reduce it. This is clearly an ineffective and harmful strategy.
(C) Changing discriminatory attitudes: This is a core goal of prejudice reduction efforts. It is an effective strategy.
(D) De-emphasising a narrow social identity: This is an effective strategy. Encouraging people to see themselves as part of a larger, common group (e.g., "humanity" instead of just their own small ingroup) can reduce intergroup conflict and prejudice.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The strategy that is not effective (and is, in fact, detrimental) is Encouraging the tendency towards self-fulfilling prophecy among the victims of prejudice.
Quick Tip: For questions asking what is "NOT" effective, look for the option that either makes no sense or would actively make the problem worse. A self-fulfilling prophecy is always a negative cycle, so encouraging it would be the wrong approach.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires matching key concepts from group dynamics with their correct definitions.

Cohesiveness: The degree to which group members are attracted to each other and are motivated to stay in the group; the "we-feeling".
Status: A socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others.
Roles: A set of expected behavior patterns attributed to someone occupying a given position in a social unit.
Group Polarisation: The tendency for a group's initial average opinion to become more extreme following group discussion.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each term from List-I to its definition in List-II:

(A) Cohesiveness directly corresponds to (IV) "Togetherness or mutual attraction among group members."
(B) Status matches with (III) "Relative position given to group members by others."
(C) Roles correctly pairs with (II) "Socially defined expectation that are expected to be fulfilled."
(D) Group polarisation is defined by (I) "Strengthening of group's initial position as a result of group interaction and discussion."


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct matching is (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), and (D)-(I). This combination is found in option (4).
Quick Tip: Break down the terms to their simple meanings: Cohesion = Sticking together. Status = Rank. Role = Expected part to play. Polarization = Moving to an extreme pole/position.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question assesses understanding of the heritability of intelligence, specifically how genetic relatedness and shared environment affect IQ correlation. The general principles are:

(A) Higher genetic similarity leads to higher IQ correlation. (Identical twins \(>\) Fraternal twins \(>\) Siblings)
(B) Shared environment increases IQ correlation. (Reared together \(>\) Reared apart)


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Applying these principles, we can rank the groups from highest to lowest expected correlation:

(A) (B) Identical twins reared together: Highest genetic similarity (100%) and highest environmental similarity. This will have the highest correlation.
(B) (D) Identical twins reared in different environments: Highest genetic similarity (100%) but different environments. The correlation will be high, but lower than identical twins reared together.
(C) (E) Fraternal twins reared together: Moderate genetic similarity (~50%) and high environmental similarity. This correlation will be lower than identical twins.
(D) (A) Siblings reared together: Moderate genetic similarity (~50%) and high environmental similarity. The correlation is typically found to be slightly lower than for fraternal twins reared together.
(E) (C) Siblings reared apart: Moderate genetic similarity (~50%) but low environmental similarity. This will have the lowest correlation among the given options.

Therefore, the correct descending order of IQ correlation is B, D, E, A, C.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence from highest to lowest correlation is (B), (D), (E), (A), (C). This matches option (4).
Quick Tip: To solve these problems, always start by ranking based on genetics (Identical Twins > Fraternal Twins/Siblings), and then use the environment (Together > Apart) as a secondary ranking factor within each genetic category.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers in the brain that play a crucial role in regulating mood, emotion, and behavior. Imbalances in certain neurotransmitters are linked to various psychological disorders.

Gamma-Aminobutyric Acid (GABA): This is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system. Its main function is to reduce neuronal excitability, producing a calming effect.
Serotonin: Plays a major role in mood, sleep, appetite, and learning. Low levels are often associated with depression.
Dopamine: Associated with the brain's reward system, pleasure, motivation, and motor control. It's implicated in addiction and schizophrenia.
Cortisol: This is a steroid hormone, not a neurotransmitter. It is the body's primary stress hormone.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Anxiety is a state of excessive neuronal activity and arousal. GABA's role is to inhibit or "calm down" this activity. Therefore, low levels or low activity of GABA would lead to insufficient inhibition, resulting in the over-arousal characteristic of anxiety disorders. Many anti-anxiety medications, like benzodiazepines, work by enhancing the effects of GABA.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Anxiety disorders have been linked to low activity of Gamma Aminobutyric Acid (GABA).
Quick Tip: Remember this simple association for exams: Anxiety \(\leftrightarrow\) Low GABA. Depression \(\leftrightarrow\) Low Serotonin. Schizophrenia (positive symptoms) \(\leftrightarrow\) High Dopamine. Parkinson's Disease \(\leftrightarrow\) Low Dopamine.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Different psychological models offer different explanations for the causes of psychological disorders.

Psychodynamic model (Freud): Emphasizes unconscious conflicts, repressed urges, and early childhood experiences.
Behavioural model (Watson, Skinner): Focuses on observable behaviors and suggests that all behaviors, both adaptive and maladaptive, are learned through processes like classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and modelling.
Cognitive model (Beck, Ellis): Focuses on how distorted or irrational thoughts, beliefs, and attitudes cause psychological distress.
Humanistic-existential model (Rogers, Maslow): Emphasizes the role of a person's choices, responsibility, and the search for meaning. Disorders arise when this potential for growth is blocked.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The key phrase in the question is "learning maladaptive ways of behaving." This is the central tenet of the behavioural model. For example, this model would explain a phobia as a learned fear response through classical conditioning. It views the disorder not as an illness, but as a learned behavior that can be unlearned.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The model that emphasizes learned maladaptive behaviors is the Behavioural model.
Quick Tip: Associate a keyword with each model's explanation of disorders: Psychodynamic -> Unconscious conflict. Behavioural -> Learned behavior. Cognitive -> Faulty thinking. Humanistic -> Blocked growth.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question describes a specific pattern of anxiety in a child. We need to identify the disorder that best fits the symptoms.

Panic disorder: Characterized by sudden, recurrent panic attacks (intense fear with physical symptoms).
Phobia: An intense, irrational fear of a specific object or situation.
Separation anxiety disorder: A childhood disorder characterized by excessive anxiety concerning separation from home or from those to whom the individual is attached (usually parents).
Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD): Characterized by chronic, excessive, and uncontrollable worry about a variety of things.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Pari's symptoms are all centered around the theme of separation from her parents. She "clings to her parents," "refuses to go to school without them," and becomes fearful "when she is left alone." This is the classic presentation of Separation Anxiety Disorder. Her age (eight years old) is also relevant, as some separation anxiety is normal in very young children, but it is developmentally inappropriate and considered a disorder at this age if it is excessive and causes significant distress or impairment.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The characteristic features described are those of Separation anxiety disorder.
Quick Tip: When diagnosing anxiety disorders, always look for the "trigger" or focus of the anxiety. Is it a specific object (Phobia)? Is it separation (Separation Anxiety)? Is it everything in general (GAD)? Or does it seem to come out of nowhere (Panic Disorder)?

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Delusions are false beliefs that are firmly held despite clear evidence to the contrary. They are a hallmark symptom of psychotic disorders. Different types of delusions have different themes.

Delusion of grandeur: Belief that one has exceptional abilities, wealth, or fame.
Delusion of reference: Belief that neutral events or comments have a special, personal meaning (e.g., a newscaster is sending a secret message).
Delusion of control: Belief that one's thoughts, feelings, or actions are being controlled by an external force.
Delusion of persecution: Belief that one is being plotted against, spied on, threatened, or deliberately victimized.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Archit's beliefs all revolve around the central theme that others are trying to harm him. He believes he is being "spied on," that people are deliberately trying to get him "thrown out," and that they "tamper with his computer" to "attack his personal space." This is the classic presentation of a persecutory delusion.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The kind of delusion Archit is suffering from is a Delusion of persecution.
Quick Tip: To differentiate delusions, focus on the core theme: Grandeur = "I am great." Persecution = "They are out to get me." Reference = "It's all about me." Control = "I am not in control of myself."

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Intellectual Disability (formerly known as Mental Retardation) is classified into different levels of severity based on adaptive functioning in conceptual, social, and practical domains. These levels indicate the degree of support an individual requires. "Higher level of dysfunctioning" means more severe disability and a greater need for support.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The question asks to arrange the levels from the highest level of dysfunctioning to the lowest. This means starting with the most severe level and ending with the least severe.

(A) Profound Intellectual Disability (D): This is the highest level of dysfunctioning. Individuals require pervasive support in all aspects of daily living.
(B) Severe Intellectual Disability (C): The second highest level. Individuals require extensive support for most daily activities.
(C) Moderate Intellectual Disability (B): Individuals require limited support for daily living and work tasks.
(D) Mild Intellectual Disability (A): This is the lowest level of dysfunctioning. Individuals can often live independently with minimal support.

Therefore, the correct order from highest to lowest dysfunctioning is Profound, Severe, Moderate, Mild, which corresponds to the sequence (D), (C), (B), (A).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct order from higher to lower level of dysfunctioning is (D), (C), (B), (A). This is option (4).
Quick Tip: Be careful with the wording. "Higher level of dysfunctioning" means more severe. "Lower level of dysfunctioning" means less severe (milder). The order is the reverse of how we might casually list them (Mild, Moderate, Severe, Profound).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires matching specific psychological disorders with their characteristic symptoms.

Schizophrenia: Characterized by a range of symptoms, including positive symptoms (like hallucinations and delusions) and negative symptoms (like flat affect).
Bipolar and Related Disorders: Involve extreme mood swings that include emotional highs (mania or hypomania) and lows (depression). During depressive episodes, suicidal thoughts are a major risk.
Separation Anxiety Disorder: The core feature is excessive fear or anxiety concerning separation from attachment figures.
Somatic Symptom Disorder: Characterized by an extreme focus on physical symptoms — such as pain or fatigue — that causes significant emotional distress and problems functioning.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match the disorders with the symptoms:

(A) Schizophrenia is famously associated with (II) Positive symptoms (e.g., hallucinations, delusions).
(B) Bipolar and Related Disorders, particularly during the depressive phases, carry a high risk of (IV) Suicidal thoughts.
(C) Separation Anxiety Disorder's defining feature is intense (III) Fear related to separation.
(D) Somatic Symptom Disorder is defined by being (I) Overly preoccupied with body-related symptoms.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct matching is (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), and (D)-(I). This corresponds to option (3).
Quick Tip: To match disorders and symptoms, focus on the single most defining feature of each disorder. Schizophrenia -> Psychosis (Positive Symptoms). Bipolar -> Mood Swings (can lead to suicidal thoughts). Somatic Symptom -> Body focus. Separation Anxiety -> Fear of separation.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The therapeutic relationship (or therapeutic alliance) is the professional relationship between a therapist and a client. It has several defining characteristics that distinguish it from other relationships.

Contractual Nature: The relationship is professional, with clear goals, boundaries, and an understanding of roles, which is often formalized in a contract or agreement.
Limited Duration: The relationship is not meant to be permanent. It has a specific purpose and is intended to end once the therapeutic goals are met.
Trusting and Confiding: Trust and confidentiality are the foundation of the relationship, allowing the client to be open and vulnerable.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the options:

(A) Contractual nature of the relationship: This is a key component. It establishes the professional boundaries and objectives.
(B) Limited duration of the therapy: This is also a key component. Therapy is goal-oriented and time-bound.
(C) Trusting and confiding relationship: This is arguably the most crucial component for therapy to be effective.
(D) Peer counseling: This is a type of helping relationship, but it is not a component of the professional therapeutic relationship itself. Peer counseling is help provided by someone of a similar status, not a trained professional therapist. Therefore, it stands outside the definition of a formal therapeutic relationship.


Step 3: Final Answer:

While peer counseling is a form of support, it is not a defining component of the professional therapeutic relationship.
Quick Tip: The therapeutic relationship is specifically about the dynamic between a trained therapist and a client. Options that describe the qualities of this relationship (trust, contract) are components. Options that describe other types of helping relationships (like peer counseling) are not.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question describes a system of behavior modification based on principles of operant conditioning. We need to identify the specific technique being used.

Negative reinforcement: Increasing a behavior by removing an aversive stimulus.
Differential reinforcement: Reinforcing only the appropriate response and applying extinction to all other responses.
Modelling: Learning by observing the behavior of others.
Token economy: A system where individuals earn "tokens" (neutral items like badges, points, or poker chips) for exhibiting desired behaviors. These tokens can later be exchanged for meaningful rewards or privileges (called backup reinforcers), such as a bonus.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The scenario perfectly describes a token economy.

The desired behavior is "timely food delivery."
The "tokens" are the "badges" given each month. These badges have no intrinsic value on their own.
The "backup reinforcer" is the "annual bonus" for which the badges can be exchanged.

This system of earning tokens for good behavior and later exchanging them for a reward is the definition of a token economy.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The behavioural technique being used is a Token economy.
Quick Tip: Whenever you see a system involving points, stars, badges, or any other symbolic item that is earned and then "cashed in" for a real reward, think "token economy."

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Logotherapy is a form of psychotherapy founded by Viktor Frankl. The name is derived from the Greek word "logos," which translates to "meaning." Frankl's theory is based on the idea that the primary motivational force in humans is a "will to meaning."


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the goals described in the options:

(A) To unlearn faulty behaviour patterns: This is the primary goal of Behavioural Therapy.
(B) To facilitate the client to find the meaning of his/her being: This is the central and defining goal of Logotherapy. Frankl believed that psychological distress often stems from an "existential vacuum," a feeling of meaninglessness, and that therapy should help individuals discover their unique meaning in life.
(C) Cognitive restructuring which in turn reduces anxiety: This is the main goal of Cognitive Therapy (like CBT or REBT).
(D) To increase an individual's self-awareness: While this is a goal of many therapies (especially humanistic ones), it is too general. Logotherapy's specific focus is on awareness of and finding meaning.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The most appropriate and specific goal of Logotherapy is to facilitate the client to find the meaning of his/her being.
Quick Tip: Remember the origin: Viktor Frankl, a Holocaust survivor, developed Logotherapy based on his experiences in concentration camps, where he observed that those who had a sense of meaning or purpose were more likely to survive. Logos = Meaning.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

Ethical principles are fundamental guidelines for professional psychologists and counsellors. We need to identify which principle was violated in the scenario.

Informed consent: Ensuring clients understand the nature of the therapy, its risks, and their rights before they agree to participate.
Confidentiality: The professional's obligation to keep information shared by the client private and not disclose it to others without the client's explicit permission (except in specific legal situations, like a threat of harm).
Respect for human rights and dignity: A broad principle of valuing each person and protecting their rights.
Professional competence: The obligation to provide services only within the boundaries of one's expertise and training.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The counsellor "shared the details with the staff of the college" without Aparna's permission. This is a direct violation of the principle of confidentiality. Confidentiality is the cornerstone of the therapeutic relationship, as it builds the trust necessary for the client to speak openly. By breaching this trust, the counsellor violated a core ethical duty. While it also shows a lack of respect (C) and perhaps incompetence (D), the most direct and specific ethical breach described is that of confidentiality.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The ethical principle that has been breached is the Confidentiality of the client.
Quick Tip: Confidentiality is about keeping secrets. If a scenario involves a therapist sharing a client's private information without permission, the answer is almost always a breach of confidentiality.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires matching key concepts related to the factors that contribute to healing in psychotherapy.

Emotional unburdening: The process of releasing pent-up emotions. This is also known by the technical term catharsis.
Therapist variable: A characteristic of the therapist that contributes to positive outcomes. This could include their skill, empathy, or their own psychological health.
Patient variable: A characteristic of the client/patient that influences therapy outcomes. This includes their motivation, hope, and expectations.
Therapeutic alliance: The collaborative bond between the client and the therapist, characterized by trust, respect, and a shared understanding of the goals of therapy.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match the terms from List-I to the descriptions in List-II:

(A) Emotional unburdening is the definition of (III) Catharsis.
(B) Therapist variable is exemplified by the therapist's qualities. A therapist who is psychologically healthy, with an (IV) Absence of unresolved emotional conflicts, is likely to be more effective.
(C) Patient variable is represented by the patient's characteristics. The (II) Expectation of improvement due to the treatment (hope or placebo effect) is a powerful patient variable.
(D) Therapeutic alliance is defined as the (I) Healing bond between therapist and client.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct matching is (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), and (D)-(I). This corresponds to option (2).
Quick Tip: For psychotherapy factors, remember the three main categories: Client variables (e.g., motivation), Therapist variables (e.g., empathy), and the Relationship variable (the therapeutic alliance).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question uses terminology from Applied Behavior Analysis (ABA). We need to understand the ABC model of behavior:

A - Antecedent: The event, action, or circumstance that occurs immediately before a behavior. It's the "trigger."
B - Behavior: The behavior itself.
C - Consequence: The action or response that follows the behavior.

An antecedent operation or intervention is a strategy that involves modifying the environment or context (the antecedent) to change a behavior.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the scenario in ABC terms. The problem behavior (B) is "not completing his homework." The target behavior we want to see is "completing his homework."

The original antecedent that leads to him being too tired is "Playing football after school" (Option B).
The problem consequence is "Not completing his homework" (Option A).
The desired outcome is "Completing his homework happily" (Option D).

The counsellor's advice is to modify the antecedent. Instead of having the antecedent be "long football practice," the counsellor introduces an intervention to change it. This intervention, this antecedent operation, is to "Reduce his football training time on weekdays" (Option C). By changing this trigger event, the counsellor aims to change the subsequent behavior (being able to do homework).


Step 3: Final Answer:

The antecedent operation (the intervention to change the antecedent conditions) is to Reduce his football training time on weekdays.
Quick Tip: In ABA questions, an "antecedent operation" is the specific change you make to the environment before the behavior happens to make the desired behavior more likely. It's a proactive strategy.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The passage describes the author mentally escaping a traumatic reality by creating a detailed, positive, and vivid image in his mind. We need to identify the psychological term for this technique.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Cognitive Behavioural Techniques (CBT) are a broad set of therapies that include identifying and changing destructive thinking patterns. While visualization can be a part of CBT, it's not the most specific answer.
Creative Visualisation is the specific practice of using imagination and mental imagery to create a desired outcome or mental state. The author's detailed description of the lecture hall, the audience, and himself giving a lecture on hope is a perfect example of this technique.
Biofeedback is a technique that involves using electronic sensors to monitor physiological functions (like heart rate or muscle tension) to learn to control them. This is not described in the passage.
Relaxation Techniques is a general category that can include deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation, and visualization. "Creative Visualisation" is a more precise description of the specific activity the author engaged in.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The author used Creative Visualisation to mentally transport himself to a positive scenario, thereby rising above his immediate suffering.
Quick Tip: In comprehension questions, always choose the most specific and accurate answer. While the technique is a type of relaxation and could be used in CBT, "Creative Visualisation" is the exact term for what is being described.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks for the term that describes the negative psychological and physical consequences of extreme, prolonged stress.

Eustress: Positive stress that is motivating and beneficial (e.g., excitement before a wedding).
Strain: The reaction or response of the body and mind to overwhelming demands (stressors).
Distress: The negative form of stress. It is the harmful, threatening type of stress that causes "wear and tear" and leads to negative health outcomes.
Burnout: A state of emotional, physical, and mental exhaustion caused by excessive and prolonged stress, typically related to work.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The state of "despair" and the resulting "physical and mental 'wear and tear'" is the classic definition of negative stress. The term that specifically refers to this harmful form of stress is Distress. While the prisoners were certainly experiencing strain and were at risk of burnout, distress is the most accurate term for the negative nature of the stress itself as described.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The state described can best be termed as Distress.
Quick Tip: Remember the simple distinction: \(\textbf{Eu}\)stress = Good stress (like \(\textbf{eu}\)phoria). \(\textbf{Di}\)stress = Bad stress (like \(\textbf{di}\)saster).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question asks to arrange the steps and effects of a visualization technique into a logical sequence. The process involves setting an intention, performing the action, and experiencing the results.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's analyze the logical flow of a structured visualization practice for stress management:

(A) (A) One must set a realistic goal. This is the first step. You must know what you want to achieve with the visualization (e.g., to feel calm, to overcome a fear).
(B) (B) Visualize when the mind is quiet, body is relaxed and eyes are closed. This is the core instruction for how to perform the technique. It sets the necessary physical and mental state.
(C) (D) This reduces the risk of interference from unbidden thoughts. This statement is a direct consequence or rationale for step (B). Being in a quiet, relaxed state helps to focus the mind. So, D logically follows B.
(D) (C) This will enable the creative energy to turn an imagined scene into reality. This describes the deeper impact of the focused visualization (from B and D). The mind begins to treat the imagined scene as a real experience.
(E) (E) This subjective experience will effectively reduce stress. This is the final outcome or the result of the entire process.

Therefore, the most logical sequence is A \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) D \(\rightarrow\) C \(\rightarrow\) E.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct sequence is (A), (B), (D), (C), (E), which corresponds to option (4).
Quick Tip: When sequencing steps of a psychological technique, think of it as a recipe: 1. Goal/Intention, 2. Preparation/Action, 3. Immediate Effect of Action, 4. Deeper Process, 5. Final Result.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to identify the statement that accurately describes the technique of creative visualization used by the author.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's evaluate each statement:

(A) Use of images and imagery to deal with stress. This is the core of creative visualization. The author explicitly describes seeing himself in a lecture hall, which is the use of mental imagery. This statement is correct.
(B) The yogic method of meditation for refocusing of attention. The passage does not mention yoga or any specific meditative tradition. While visualization can be a form of meditation, this statement is an unsupported assumption.
(C) Procedure to monitor and reduce physiological aspects of stress by providing feedback. This describes biofeedback, a completely different technique that was not mentioned.
(D) Replacing negative and irrational thoughts with positive and rational ones. This describes cognitive restructuring, a technique from Cognitive Behavioral Therapy. While the author's visualization involved positive themes, the primary technique was imagery, not the logical analysis and replacement of thoughts.


Step 3: Final Answer:

Only statement (A) is a direct and accurate description of the method used by the author. Therefore, the correct option is (2).
Quick Tip: Base your answers strictly on the information given in the passage. Avoid making assumptions or choosing options that describe related but different psychological techniques.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This is a direct knowledge question about a specific personality construct associated with resilience to stress.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

The concept of a personality type resilient to stress, characterized by the "three Cs," was developed by psychologist Suzanne Kobasa.

Commitment: A tendency to be involved in life's activities with a sense of purpose.
Control: A belief that one can influence events and outcomes, rather than feeling helpless.
Challenge: A tendency to view change and potential stressors as opportunities for growth rather than threats.

Together, these three traits constitute the personality style known as Hardiness. Individuals high in hardiness are better able to cope with stress and are less likely to fall ill.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The personality trait consisting of the three Cs (commitment, control, and challenge) is referred to as Hardiness.
Quick Tip: Memorize the "Three Cs" of Hardiness: Commitment, Control, and Challenge. This is a frequently tested concept in psychology related to stress and coping.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question asks to name the phenomenon described in the last sentence of the passage: "Whatever the initial position in the group, this position becomes much stronger as a result of discussions and interaction in the group."


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Group polarisation: This is the precise term for the tendency for groups to make decisions that are more extreme than the initial inclination of their members. If the initial tendency is towards risk, the group decision is riskier; if the initial tendency is towards caution, the group decision is more cautious. The passage's description is a textbook definition of this phenomenon.
Groupthink: This is a mode of thinking that occurs when the desire for group consensus overrides the realistic appraisal of alternative courses of action. It's about flawed decision-making due to a lack of critical evaluation, not just the strengthening of an initial position.
Obedience: This refers to complying with commands given by an authority figure.
Social loafing: This is the tendency for individuals to exert less effort when working collectively than when working individually.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The strengthening of the group's initial position through discussion is known as Group polarisation.
Quick Tip: Remember the key difference: Group Polarisation is about the group's opinion becoming more extreme. Groupthink is about the group making a bad decision because of a desire for harmony.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

The question describes a situation where an individual's belief is strengthened because they perceive that many other people hold the same belief.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Cohesiveness: Refers to the bonds that link group members together. While a cohesive group might have similar opinions, this term doesn't describe the phenomenon of validation itself.
Autokinetic effect: A perceptual illusion of apparent movement of a stationary point of light in a dark room, used in Sherif's conformity studies. It is not relevant here.
Compliance: Publicly acting in accord with an explicit or implicit request while privately disagreeing. This is not what is described.
Bandwagon effect: This is a cognitive bias where people do or believe things because many other people do or believe the same. The feeling of being "validated by the public" and the strengthening of one's view due to popular support is a core feature of the bandwagon effect.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The phenomenon described is the Bandwagon effect.
Quick Tip: The "Bandwagon effect" is often summarized by the phrase "jumping on the bandwagon." It's the tendency to align with the perceived majority opinion.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

We need to evaluate each statement based on the provided passage and established principles of social psychology.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


(A) Individuals are more likely to take extreme decisions than the group. This is explicitly contradicted by the passage, which states, "groups are more likely to take extreme decisions than individuals alone." Therefore, (A) is false.
(B) When you find others favouring your opinion, you feel that your view is being validated by the public. This describes the process of social validation, which is a key mechanism behind conformity and group polarisation. This statement is true.
(C) When you find people having similar views, you are likely to perceive them as in-group and as a consequence your views get strengthened. This describes two related concepts: ingroup formation (based on social identity theory) and the strengthening of views (a part of group polarisation). This statement is true.
(D) Groups are more likely to take extreme decisions than individuals alone. This is explicitly stated in the passage and is the definition of the group extremity shift seen in group polarisation. This statement is true.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct statements are (B), (C), and (D). This combination corresponds to option (2).
Quick Tip: For "select the correct statements" questions, go through each option methodically and mark it as true or false based on the text and your knowledge. Then, find the answer choice that matches your assessment.

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question relates to Social Identity Theory, which posits that people categorize themselves and others into social groups.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:


Ingroup: A social group to which a person psychologically identifies as being a member. This is the "us." People with similar views are typically perceived as part of one's ingroup.
Outgroup: A social group with which an individual does not identify. This is the "them."
Non-conformists: Individuals who do not conform to group norms. This is the opposite of what is described.
Friends: While people with similar views may become friends, "ingroup" is the broader and more technical psychological term for any group with which one identifies, whether they are personal friends or not.


Step 3: Final Answer:

According to social psychology, you are likely to perceive others with similar views as your Ingroup.
Quick Tip: Remember the basic social categorization: Ingroup = "Us" (people like me). Outgroup = "Them" (people not like me).

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:

This question requires matching key terms in group dynamics with their correct definitions.


Step 2: Detailed Explanation:

Let's match each description in List-I with the appropriate term in List-II:

(A) Members are viewed differently and are often perceived negatively: This is the definition of how an ingroup typically perceives an (III) Outgroup.
(B) The strengthening of the group's initial position as a result of group interaction and discussion: This is the precise definition of (I) Group polarisation.
(C) Appearance of consensus or unanimous agreement within a group: This illusion of agreement, often due to suppression of dissent, is a primary symptom of (IV) Groupthink.
(D) Team spirit or 'we' feeling or a sense of belongingness to the group: This is the definition of group (II) Cohesiveness.


Step 3: Final Answer:

The correct matching is (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), and (D)-(II). This corresponds to option (4).
Quick Tip: Create flashcards or a simple table to memorize the definitions of key group dynamic terms: Cohesiveness (we-feeling), Group Polarisation (more extreme), Groupthink (bad consensus), Ingroup (us), Outgroup (them).