The CUET 2025 exam is conducted from 13th May to 3rd June. The CUET Political Science Question Paper 2025 along with the Answer Key and Solution PDF will be made available after the examination.
As per the exam pattern, the CUET Political Science exam includes 50 questions carrying a total of 250 marks, to be completed within 60 minutes. Each correct answer is awarded 5 marks, while 1 mark is deducted for each incorrect response.
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CUET 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF
CUET Political Science Question Paper 2025 with Answer Key
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CUET 2025 Political Science Question Paper with Solutions
Which among the following was not a challenge to nationhood in the immediate post-Independence India?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the question
The question asks about challenges faced by India in the immediate post-Independence era. These challenges involved shaping the nationhood and establishing democratic, economic, and social systems.
Step 2: Analyzing the options
- (A) To shape an united nation that was accommodative of the diversity in India: This was indeed a challenge after independence, as India had to accommodate its diverse population while forming a unified nation.
- (B) To restructure its economy through structural adjustment programme: This was not an immediate challenge post-Independence. Structural adjustment programmes came much later in the 1980s and 1990s, particularly under economic liberalization.
- (C) To develop democratic practices in accordance with the Constitution: Establishing democracy in line with the newly adopted Constitution was a key challenge immediately after independence.
- (D) To evolve policies that address economic development and eradication of poverty: This was also a major challenge faced post-Independence, as poverty was widespread, and economic development needed to be focused upon.
Step 3: Conclusion
The restructuring of the economy through a structural adjustment programme was not an immediate challenge post-Independence. It became relevant later in India's economic history. Hence, the correct answer is option (B).
Quick Tip: Structural adjustment programmes were introduced later, in the late 20th century, as part of India's economic reforms, rather than being an immediate post-Independence challenge.
Which of the following statements are correct about the problems of the Partition of India?
View Solution
Step 1: Statement (A)
There was indeed no single belt of Muslim majority areas in British India. Muslims were dispersed in different regions and did not form a continuous geographical belt. This statement is correct.
Step 2: Statement (B)
Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan of the North Eastern Frontier Province did indeed oppose the idea of the two-nation theory. However, this was not the case in every instance. He stood for a united India and was a strong opponent of the partition. This statement is correct.
Step 3: Statement (C)
There were indeed regions in Bengal and Punjab where non-Muslims were in the majority, and the partition created new borders that divided communities. This statement is correct.
Step 4: Statement (D)
The violence during Partition did affect minorities on both sides of the new borders. Hindus and Sikhs were targeted in Pakistan, while Muslims were targeted in India. This statement is correct.
Step 5: Final Answer
The correct statements are (A), (C), and (D). Therefore, the correct answer is Option 4.
Quick Tip: The Partition of India led to widespread violence and the division of communities across the borders. It was marked by tragic consequences for minorities on both sides.
Which of the following part of the Indian Constitution is related to the Directive Principles of State Policy?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Directive Principles of State Policy
The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are guidelines or principles set out in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. These principles are meant to guide the government in the formulation of policies and laws.
Step 2: The Role of DPSP
While DPSPs are not justiciable (i.e., they cannot be enforced by the courts), they are fundamental in the governance of the country. The goal is to establish a social and economic democracy, with provisions for welfare and social justice.
Step 3: Identifying the Part of the Constitution
Part IV of the Indian Constitution, under Articles 36 to 51, deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy. These principles include directives on social, economic, and political welfare and justice.
Step 4: Final Answer
Therefore, the correct part of the Indian Constitution related to the Directive Principles of State Policy is Part IV.
Quick Tip: Remember: The Directive Principles of State Policy are outlined in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. These principles guide the government's actions to ensure social and economic welfare.
The first general elections was held in India between:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the context
India held its first general elections in 1952, shortly after gaining independence in 1947. The elections were a significant event in India's history as it marked the establishment of the democratic process at a national level.
Step 2: Election timeline
The elections were conducted between October 1951 and February 1952, which led to the formation of India's first government.
Step 3: Exact date range
Thus, the first general elections in India were held between 1952-1953, with voting taking place in phases from October 1951 to February 1952.
Step 4: Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is 1952-1953.
Quick Tip: The first general elections in India were held between 1952-1953. This election set the foundation for India's democratic system.
How many women were not recorded in the first draft of the electoral rolls?
View Solution
Step 1: Background information
The electoral rolls in India were prepared in order to include all eligible voters, and a large section of women were initially missed in the first draft. The government took steps to correct this.
Step 2: Data correction process
The final numbers showed that 40 lakh women were not recorded in the first draft, highlighting the discrepancies that needed to be addressed for complete voter inclusion.
Step 3: Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is that 40 lakh women were not recorded in the first draft of the electoral rolls.
Quick Tip: Keep in mind that large-scale corrections and updates often take place in the initial stages of the electoral process to ensure inclusivity and accuracy.
Which political leader did not participate in any of the Independence Day Celebrations on the 15th August, 1947?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the question
The question asks about the political leader who did not participate in any Independence Day Celebrations on the 15th August, 1947. The leaders involved in India’s independence struggle played a key role in the ceremonies marking the end of British rule. However, M.K. Gandhi did not attend the celebrations.
Step 2: Analyzing the options
- (A) Jawaharlal Nehru → Jawaharlal Nehru delivered the first Independence Day speech from the Red Fort on 15th August, 1947, marking the birth of independent India.
- (B) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar → Dr. Ambedkar, the architect of the Constitution of India, was involved in the celebrations and the formation of the new government.
- (C) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel → Sardar Patel also played a significant role in the celebrations, being one of the main leaders of the independence movement.
- (D) M.K. Gandhi → M.K. Gandhi, although the leader of the independence struggle, chose not to attend the Independence Day celebrations in 1947 due to his disappointment with the partition and the violence it caused.
Step 3: Conclusion
The correct answer is option (D) M.K. Gandhi, who did not participate in the Independence Day celebrations of 1947.
Quick Tip: Although Gandhi led the movement for independence, he did not participate in the celebrations due to his distress over the partition and the violence it caused.
Which initiative was launched by the government between 1987 and 1991 that involved campaigns for development?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the period
Between 1987 and 1991, the Indian government launched several initiatives to promote development in various sectors. The focus was on improving governance, increasing economic growth, and expanding democratic participation.
Step 2: Analyzing each option
- Development Outcome Programme: There is no significant record of such a programme under this name between 1987 and 1991.
- Kamraj Plan: This plan was actually proposed by K. Kamaraj in 1963 and not related to this time period. It was aimed at revitalizing the Congress party.
- New Democratic Initiative: This was indeed an initiative launched in the late 1980s aimed at democratic reforms and enhancing the development process through decentralized decision-making. This statement is correct.
- Socialist pattern of society: This was a general objective of post-independence India, not a specific campaign between 1987 and 1991.
Step 3: Final Answer
Thus, the correct answer is the New Democratic Initiative launched between 1987 and 1991. Therefore, the correct option is Option 3.
Quick Tip: The New Democratic Initiative focused on deepening democracy and decentralizing power to improve governance during the late 1980s and early 1990s.
Operation Flood deals with:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Operation Flood
Operation Flood, launched in 1970 by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB), is a landmark initiative aimed at creating a nationwide milk grid. It involved linking rural producers with urban markets and ensuring fair prices for both milk producers and consumers.
Step 2: Key Objectives of Operation Flood
The primary goal of Operation Flood was to build a strong dairy cooperative network across India, which allowed small farmers to become part of the milk production chain. The initiative successfully created the world's largest dairy cooperative network and helped in ensuring fair prices for milk.
Step 3: Final Answer
Thus, Operation Flood dealt with the creation of a Nationwide Milk Grid to connect dairy farmers to urban markets.
Quick Tip: Remember: Operation Flood is related to the creation of a nationwide milk grid and not to flood management or wheat production. It revolutionized the dairy industry in India.
Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution deals with promoting International Peace and Security?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Article 51
Article 51 of the Indian Constitution is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy and deals with promoting International Peace and Security. It encourages India to work towards maintaining peaceful relations with other countries and fostering international cooperation.
Step 2: Key elements of Article 51
It states that the State should endeavor to promote international peace and security, and also respect international law and treaty obligations in the dealings with other nations.
Step 3: Other Articles' Role
- Article 21 guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty.
- Article 25 deals with the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion.
- Article 44 refers to the Uniform Civil Code, which aims to secure a common civil code for all citizens.
Step 4: Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is Article 51, as it directly pertains to promoting international peace and security.
Quick Tip: Remember: Article 51 of the Indian Constitution emphasizes India's commitment to promoting international peace and cooperation, reflecting its support for global security.
Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution deals with promoting International Peace and Security?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Article 51
Article 51 of the Indian Constitution is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy and deals with promoting International Peace and Security. It encourages India to work towards maintaining peaceful relations with other countries and fostering international cooperation.
Step 2: Key elements of Article 51
It states that the State should endeavor to promote international peace and security, and also respect international law and treaty obligations in the dealings with other nations.
Step 3: Other Articles' Role
- Article 21 guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty.
- Article 25 deals with the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice, and propagation of religion.
- Article 44 refers to the Uniform Civil Code, which aims to secure a common civil code for all citizens.
Step 4: Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is Article 51, as it directly pertains to promoting international peace and security.
Quick Tip: Remember: Article 51 of the Indian Constitution emphasizes India's commitment to promoting international peace and cooperation, reflecting its support for global security.
Which country India signed a 20 year Treaty of Peace and Friendship in 1971?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the question
The question refers to the 1971 peace and friendship treaty signed between India and a country. India signed a 20-year treaty with the Soviet Union in 1971 during the Indo-Pak war. This treaty was critical during the liberation of East Pakistan and the creation of Bangladesh.
Step 2: Analyzing the options
- (A) China → India did not sign a peace treaty with China in 1971. This is not the correct answer.
- (B) Pakistan → India and Pakistan were at war in 1971, and thus no peace treaty was signed between them.
- (C) Soviet Union → This is the correct answer, as India signed the Treaty of Peace, Friendship, and Cooperation with the Soviet Union in 1971.
- (D) Bangladesh → Although Bangladesh was created in 1971, India did not sign a treaty with Bangladesh in the same way as with the Soviet Union.
Step 3: Conclusion
The correct answer is option (C) Soviet Union, as India signed a significant treaty with the Soviet Union in 1971.
Quick Tip: The Treaty of Peace, Friendship, and Cooperation between India and the Soviet Union was a major diplomatic and strategic agreement that influenced the outcome of the 1971 war and the creation of Bangladesh.
Which of the following statements is/are not true about privy purse?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Privy Purse
The privy purse was a payment made by the Indian government to the erstwhile rulers of princely states after India’s independence. It was given as a form of compensation for the dissolution of their royal status and privileges.
Step 2: Analyzing each option
- (A) "A privy purse was given to the Princely States." This statement is true. The privy purse was indeed given to the princely states as compensation for the loss of their status after joining the Indian Union.
- (B) "It was given as an assurance that after the dissolution of princely rule, the then rulers' families would be allowed to retain certain private property and given a grant in heredity or government allowance." This statement is true. The privy purse was intended to protect the former rulers' families by allowing them to retain some private property and receive allowances.
- (C) "At the time of accession, there was little criticism of these privileges since integration and consolidation was the primary aim." This statement is true. At the time of India's integration, the priority was on consolidating the nation, and thus, the privy purse was seen as part of the process of integrating the princely states.
- (D) "Hereditary privileges were consonant with the principles of equality, social and economic justice." This statement is false. The privy purse, along with the hereditary privileges, was seen by many as inconsistent with the principles of equality, social justice, and economic fairness, especially after independence. The payment of the privy purse was a controversial issue.
Step 3: Final Answer
Since statement (D) is not true, the correct answer is Option 4.
Quick Tip: The privy purse was a source of contention as it continued privileges to erstwhile royalty, which conflicted with the ideals of equality and social justice after independence.
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
View Solution
Step 1: The Formation of DMK
The Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) was formed in 1949, making it the earliest event in this list.
Step 2: Kamraj Plan (K. Kamraj's Resignation Proposal)
In 1963, K. Kamraj, the then Congress President, proposed that all Congressmen should resign from office to make way for new leadership. This plan was an important political move within the Congress party.
Step 3: Indira Gandhi’s Ten Point Programme
In 1969, Indira Gandhi, the then Prime Minister, got the Congress Working Committee to adopt the Ten Point Programme, which aimed at progressive economic and social reforms.
Step 4: Fifth General Election to Lok Sabha
The fifth general election to the Lok Sabha was held in 1971, where Indira Gandhi led the Congress to victory.
Step 5: Final Answer
Thus, the correct chronological order of the events is:
(A) DMK was formed \(\rightarrow\) (C) K. Kamraj proposed that all Congressmen should resign from office \(\rightarrow\) (B) Indira Gandhi got the Congress Working Committee adopt a Ten Point Programme \(\rightarrow\) (D) The fifth general election to Lok Sabha were held.
Quick Tip: Remember: The formation of DMK in 1949 came first, followed by K. Kamraj’s resignation proposal in 1963, Indira Gandhi's Ten Point Programme in 1969, and finally, the 1971 Lok Sabha elections.
The DMK came to power for the first time in state elections because-
View Solution
Step 1: DMK's Rise to Power
The Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) came to power in Tamil Nadu after winning the 1967 state elections. The party's rise to power was largely due to its strong anti-Hindi stance, which resonated with the Tamil population's cultural and linguistic identity concerns.
Step 2: Anti-Hindi Agitation
The DMK, under the leadership of C.N. Annadurai, led a strong anti-Hindi agitation against the imposition of Hindi as the sole national language in India. The agitation was highly popular in Tamil Nadu and helped the DMK gain mass support, eventually leading to its victory in the state elections.
Step 3: Other Options
- The demand for President's rule in Andhra Pradesh was not the key factor in DMK's rise.
- The party did not focus on floor-crossing or support the Congress Syndicate to form a coalition government in Tamil Nadu.
Step 4: Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is (C) It led an anti-Hindi agitation against the centre.
Quick Tip: The DMK's success in the 1967 Tamil Nadu elections was closely tied to its anti-Hindi agitation, which gained widespread support from the Tamil-speaking population.
When was the Department of Defence Supplies established?
View Solution
Step 1: Establishment of the Department
The Department of Defence Supplies was established to manage the supply of materials and equipment required for India's defence sector. It played a key role during the period when India was strengthening its military preparedness.
Step 2: Date of Establishment
The Department was set up in 1965 to streamline the procurement and supply of materials related to national defence. It was particularly crucial during the time of growing military needs.
Step 3: Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is that the Department of Defence Supplies was established in 1965.
Quick Tip: The Department of Defence Supplies was set up in 1965 during a critical time in India's defence modernization. It managed essential supplies for the armed forces.
Match List-I with List-II
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the events in the movements
- Gujarat Movement → It occurred in January 1974 as a student-led protest against the rising prices and the lack of basic necessities in Gujarat.
- Bihar Movement → This movement occurred in March 1974, led by Jayaprakash Narayan against the ruling government.
- Assam Movement → It took place in 1979, primarily aimed at protesting the influx of illegal migrants from Bangladesh.
- Railway Strike → This event happened in May 1974 and was a strike by railway workers demanding better wages and working conditions.
Step 2: Analyzing the options
- (A) Gujarat Movement matches with (IV) January 1974.
- (B) Bihar Movement matches with (III) March 1974.
- (C) Assam Movement matches with (II) 1979.
- (D) Railway Strike matches with (I) May 1974.
Step 3: Conclusion
Thus, the correct matching is (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I). Hence, option 1 is correct.
Quick Tip: The correct answer can be identified by matching the year of each movement/event with the known historical timeline of these significant events.
In which of the following movements was the slogan- 'Vadakku Vaazhkiradhu; Therkku Thaekiradhu' (The north thrives even as the south decays) used?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the slogan
The slogan "Vadakku Vaazhkiradhu; Therkku Thaekiradhu" translates to "The north thrives even as the south decays," which reflected the perceived political and economic disparity between the northern and southern regions of India. It was a call for greater political and economic empowerment for the southern states, particularly Tamil Nadu.
Step 2: The Dravidian Movement
The Dravidian movement, led by the Dravida Kazhagam (DK) and later by the DMK (Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam), sought to challenge the dominance of the northern, Hindi-speaking states over the southern region, and promote the welfare of the Tamil-speaking population. This slogan became a significant part of the movement as it expressed the resentment against the dominance of northern India and emphasized the need for social, economic, and political empowerment for the Dravidian people.
Step 3: Final Answer
The slogan was widely used during the Dravidian movement, making Option 4 the correct answer.
Quick Tip: The Dravidian movement was a major political force in Tamil Nadu that focused on challenging the dominance of northern India and advocating for the rights of the Tamil-speaking population.
Who among the following started the Self-Respect Movement in 1925?
View Solution
Step 1: The Self-Respect Movement
The Self-Respect Movement was launched by E.V. Ramasami Naicker, commonly known as Periyar, in 1925. The movement aimed at promoting social justice, rationalism, and fighting against the caste system. It focused on empowering the marginalized communities, especially the lower castes, by encouraging self-respect and equality.
Step 2: Periyar's Vision and Role
E.V. Ramasami Naicker, a prominent social reformer, believed in a society free from caste discrimination. The Self-Respect Movement was part of his efforts to fight against untouchability, promote gender equality, and improve the living conditions of backward classes in Tamil Nadu.
Step 3: Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is E.V. Ramasami Naicker, who started the Self-Respect Movement in 1925.
Quick Tip: Remember: E.V. Ramasami Naicker, also known as Periyar, founded the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 to combat caste-based discrimination and promote equality.
Which of the following statements are correct about elections in India?
View Solution
Step 1: Analysis of Statement (A)
Statement (A) is incorrect. In the 1989 Lok Sabha elections, the Congress party won fewer seats compared to the 1984 elections. In 1984, Congress had a landslide victory, securing a record number of seats.
Step 2: Analysis of Statement (B)
Statement (B) is incorrect. The 1991 elections did not mark the end of the 'Congress system'. While the Congress party lost some support, it continued to play a significant role in Indian politics until the 1990s. The end of the 'Congress system' is often attributed to the 1996 elections.
Step 3: Analysis of Statement (C)
Statement (C) is correct. In the 1989 elections, the Congress party suffered a major defeat, but no other party secured an absolute majority. This led to a period of coalition governments in India.
Step 4: Analysis of Statement (D)
Statement (D) is also correct. The National Front, a coalition of several parties including the Janata Dal, formed a government in 1989, with V.P. Singh as the Prime Minister.
Step 5: Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is (D) (C) and (D) only.
Quick Tip: In 1989, the Congress party suffered a major defeat, but the lack of a majority for any single party led to the formation of a coalition government by the National Front.
Under which provision of the Indian Constitution, Kashmir was given a special status?
View Solution
Step 1: Kashmir's Special Status
Kashmir was granted special status through Article 370 of the Indian Constitution. This provision allowed the state to have its own constitution, flag, and autonomy over all matters except foreign affairs, defense, finance, and communications.
Step 2: Historical Context
This provision was made to respect the unique circumstances under which Jammu and Kashmir acceded to India in 1947. The region had its own legal and political systems, and Article 370 was meant to preserve these arrangements.
Step 3: Final Answer
Therefore, Kashmir's special status was granted under Article 370 of the Indian Constitution.
Quick Tip: Article 370 of the Indian Constitution granted Jammu and Kashmir a special status, which included significant autonomy over its internal affairs.
In which year did the All Assam Students' Union (AASU) lead an anti-foreigner movement?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the question
The question asks about the year when the All Assam Students' Union (AASU) led an anti-foreigner movement. The movement was primarily a protest against the illegal migration of people from neighboring Bangladesh to Assam. This movement led to widespread protests in Assam in the late 1970s.
Step 2: Analyzing the options
- 1. 1979 → This is the correct answer. The AASU led the anti-foreigners' movement in Assam beginning in 1979.
- 2. 1978 → While protests against illegal migration were gaining momentum, the official and major movement started in 1979.
- 3. 1976 → This is too early, as the movement did not start this early.
- 4. 1977 → This is not the correct year for the movement's official launch.
Step 3: Conclusion
The correct year is 1979 when the All Assam Students' Union (AASU) launched the anti-foreigners' movement, which later played a significant role in shaping Assam's political landscape. Hence, the correct answer is option (A).
Quick Tip: The Assam Movement, led by AASU, was a significant event in the history of Assam, focusing on the issue of illegal immigration from Bangladesh and its impact on the local population.
Arrange the following events in chronological order:
View Solution
Step 1: Analyzing the events
- (A) The peasant uprising in Naxalbari occurred in 1967 in West Bengal. It was a major leftist peasant revolt.
- (B) The opposition political parties led by J.P. Narayan organised a massive demonstration in Delhi's Ramlila grounds in 1974, demanding the resignation of Indira Gandhi. This was a key event in the JP movement.
- (C) The Janata Party government appointed the Shah Commission of Inquiry in 1977, following the Emergency imposed by Indira Gandhi.
- (D) The Supreme Court decided the Keshavananda Bharati case in 1973, which dealt with the basic structure doctrine.
Step 2: Chronological order
The events should be arranged in the following order based on their occurrence:
- (B) The demonstration led by J.P. Narayan in 1974,
- (C) The Shah Commission appointed by the Janata Party government in 1977,
- (A) The Naxalbari uprising in 1967,
- (D) The Supreme Court's decision in the Keshavananda Bharati case in 1973.
Step 3: Final Answer
Thus, the correct chronological order is (B), (C), (A), (D), which corresponds to Option 2.
Quick Tip: Remember the key events of the 1970s: JP’s movement in 1974, Shah Commission in 1977, Naxalbari in 1967, and Keshavananda Bharati in 1973.
The Shah Bano case dealt with-
View Solution
Step 1: The Shah Bano Case
The Shah Bano case, decided in 1985, was a landmark legal case in India that involved the maintenance of a Muslim woman after her divorce. Shah Bano, a Muslim woman, was denied maintenance after being divorced by her husband, despite the fact that the Indian law mandated maintenance for divorced women.
Step 2: Legal Background
Shah Bano petitioned the courts to seek maintenance from her husband under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code, which requires a husband to provide maintenance to his wife after divorce. However, the Muslim community argued that Islamic law (Sharia) superseded the Indian law in such matters. The case ultimately reached the Supreme Court.
Step 3: Supreme Court's Decision
The Supreme Court of India ruled in favor of Shah Bano, emphasizing the importance of a woman’s right to maintenance, regardless of religious beliefs. The decision sparked a significant debate about the application of personal laws and led to the passing of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, which restricted the scope of the Shah Bano judgment for Muslim women.
Step 4: Final Answer
Therefore, the Shah Bano case dealt with the maintenance of a Muslim woman from her husband, making option (B) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Remember: The Shah Bano case was a significant legal case involving the maintenance rights of a Muslim woman under Indian law, highlighting the conflict between personal laws and constitutional provisions.
The fall of the Berlin Wall symbolises which of the following events in International Politics?
View Solution
Step 1: Background of the Berlin Wall
The Berlin Wall, erected in 1961 during the Cold War, symbolized the physical and ideological division between East and West Germany. It was a symbol of the broader Cold War conflict between the Soviet Union and the Western Bloc, led by the United States.
Step 2: Fall of the Berlin Wall
The fall of the Berlin Wall on 9th November 1989 marked a pivotal moment in history. It symbolized the end of the Cold War era, the collapse of Soviet influence in Eastern Europe, and the beginning of German reunification.
Step 3: Event Symbolism
- The fall of the Berlin Wall symbolizes the Unification of Germany, as it opened the way for the reunification of East and West Germany in 1990.
- It also symbolizes the Collapse of the Second World, referring to the collapse of the Communist Bloc led by the Soviet Union.
Step 4: Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Unification of Germany and (D) Collapse of the Second World.
Quick Tip: The fall of the Berlin Wall is a powerful symbol of the end of the Cold War and the reunification of Germany. It also represents the collapse of Soviet influence in Eastern Europe.
Arrange the events in chronological order:
View Solution
Step 1: China's Invasion
The first event that occurred was China's massive invasion in 1962, which led to the brief border war between China and India.
Step 2: Aksai Chin Occupation
After the invasion, China occupied the Aksai Chin region, which was a part of the territory disputed between India and China. This occupation was a significant event in the bilateral relations.
Step 3: Restoration of Diplomatic Relations
Full diplomatic relations between India and China were restored after years of strained ties, particularly after the 1962 war. Diplomatic channels were reopened to stabilize the relationship.
Step 4: Atal Behari Vajpayee's Visit
In 2003, Atal Behari Vajpayee, the then Prime Minister of India, became the first top-level Indian leader to visit China after the restoration of diplomatic ties. This visit was a landmark in the diplomatic history of India-China relations.
Step 5: Final Answer
Thus, the correct chronological order is (A), (D), (B), (C).
Quick Tip: The chronological sequence of these events shows the gradual shift in India-China relations from conflict to diplomatic engagement and cooperation.
Arrange the following events related to disintegration of the Soviet Union in chronological order:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the events
- (A) Boris Yeltsin became the head of the Communist Party in Moscow in 1990, a crucial event as he would later play a significant role in the dissolution of the Soviet Union.
- (B) In 1990, the Soviet Union declared that Warsaw Pact members were free to decide their own future, signaling a shift towards independence for former Soviet allies.
- (C) In 1991, Boris Yeltsin became the President of Russia, a key moment in the disintegration of the Soviet Union, as the Russian Federation declared its independence.
- (D) The Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) was established in December 1991 after the collapse of the Soviet Union, comprising 11 former Soviet republics.
Step 2: Arranging the events chronologically
- The correct chronological order of these events is:
1. (A) Boris Yeltsin is appointed as the head of the Communist Party in Moscow.
2. (B) Soviet Union declares that the Warsaw Pact members are free to decide their own future.
3. (C) Boris Yeltsin becomes the President of Russia.
4. (D) The Commonwealth of Independent States is established.
Step 3: Conclusion
The correct order is (A), (B), (C), (D), making option 1 the correct answer.
Quick Tip: The disintegration of the Soviet Union was a gradual process, marked by key events such as the rise of Boris Yeltsin, the declaration of independence by various republics, and the formation of the CIS.
Which country's development into an economic power is known as the "Miracle on the Han River"?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Miracle on the Han River
The "Miracle on the Han River" refers to the rapid and remarkable economic development of South Korea after the Korean War. From being one of the poorest countries in the world, South Korea became one of the largest economies in Asia, primarily due to its focus on industrialization, export-driven growth, and technological advancements.
Step 2: Reasons for South Korea's Economic Growth
After the war, South Korea adopted various economic reforms, including land reforms, focused investments in heavy industries, and support for education. The government played a key role in fostering the conditions for rapid economic growth, which included the development of key industries such as electronics, shipbuilding, and automobiles. This transformation is often referred to as the "Miracle on the Han River."
Step 3: Final Answer
Therefore, the country known for this economic miracle is South Korea. Thus, the correct answer is Option (C).
Quick Tip: The "Miracle on the Han River" is a term used to describe South Korea's incredible post-war economic transformation, driven by industrialization and export-oriented growth.
Which Treaty was resisted by Denmark and Sweden as an Euro-skeptic response to European Union's integrationist agenda?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Maastricht Treaty
The Maastricht Treaty, signed in 1992, is also known as the Treaty on European Union (TEU). It established the European Union (EU) and laid the groundwork for the creation of the Euro currency. It represented a major step in the European integration process, aiming to create a closer political, economic, and monetary union among European countries.
Step 2: Euro-skepticism in Denmark and Sweden
Denmark and Sweden, like some other European countries, were resistant to deeper European integration, particularly the Maastricht Treaty. Denmark initially rejected the treaty in a referendum held in 1992 due to concerns about the loss of national sovereignty. Sweden also expressed concerns about the treaty's implications, which led to their decision to not join the Eurozone.
Step 3: Final Answer
Therefore, the Maastricht Treaty was resisted by Denmark and Sweden as a Euro-skeptic response to the EU's integrationist agenda, making option (B) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Remember: The Maastricht Treaty was resisted by Denmark and Sweden due to concerns about further integration and national sovereignty. Denmark later negotiated exceptions, and Sweden opted out of the Eurozone.
In which of the following year did India and Pakistan sign the Shimla Agreement?
View Solution
Step 1: Context of the Shimla Agreement
The Shimla Agreement was a landmark accord signed between India and Pakistan following the Indo-Pakistani war of 1971. It was signed in the city of Shimla, Himachal Pradesh, in July 1972. The agreement was aimed at improving bilateral relations and resolving conflicts peacefully.
Step 2: Key points of the Agreement
The Shimla Agreement emphasized the respect for the Line of Control (LoC) in Jammu and Kashmir and the peaceful resolution of disputes. It also laid the groundwork for future peace talks between the two nations.
Step 3: Other Events and Dates
- July 1966 refers to the Tashkent Agreement signed after the 1965 Indo-Pakistani war.
- July 1976 and July 1987 are not significant for the Shimla Agreement.
Step 4: Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) July 1972.
Quick Tip: The Shimla Agreement of 1972 was a major step in reducing tensions between India and Pakistan, with a focus on peaceful resolution of disputes.
In which year did India and Bangladesh sign the Farakka Treaty for sharing of the Ganga water?
View Solution
Step 1: Background of the Farakka Treaty
The Farakka Treaty was signed between India and Bangladesh to resolve disputes over the sharing of the Ganga river water. The treaty was necessary to ensure the equitable distribution of water between the two countries for irrigation, drinking water, and other uses.
Step 2: The Year of Signing
The treaty was signed in 1996, after several rounds of negotiations. It aimed to ensure a fair distribution of water during the dry season when water availability was a concern for both countries.
Step 3: Final Answer
Thus, the correct answer is that India and Bangladesh signed the Farakka Treaty in the year 1996.
Quick Tip: The Farakka Treaty is significant as it marked an important step in India-Bangladesh cooperation, resolving long-standing water-sharing issues.
The olive branches in the emblem of the United Nations' logo signifies:
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the symbolism of the olive branches
The olive branch is a symbol of peace. In the emblem of the United Nations, the olive branches surround the globe, signifying the organization's commitment to achieving and maintaining world peace. This is a well-known international symbol of peace and diplomacy.
Step 2: Analyzing the options
- (A) Security → Security is an important part of the UN's mission, but the olive branches specifically symbolize peace, not security.
- (B) Reform → Reform is a goal of the UN, but not represented by the olive branches in the logo.
- (C) World peace → This is the correct answer. The olive branches in the UN logo represent the goal of achieving world peace.
- (D) Human rights → While human rights are a fundamental aspect of the UN's work, they are not specifically symbolized by the olive branches.
Step 3: Conclusion
Thus, the olive branches in the emblem of the United Nations symbolize world peace. Therefore, the correct answer is option (C).
Quick Tip: The olive branch is an ancient symbol of peace, and in the UN emblem, it signifies the goal of achieving peace globally.
The WTO was set up in 1995 as the successor to which of the following organization?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the WTO
The World Trade Organization (WTO) was established in 1995 to regulate international trade and to provide a platform for negotiations. It serves as the successor to the General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT), which was in operation since 1948 and focused on reducing tariffs and promoting trade.
Step 2: Role of GATT
GATT was a multilateral agreement aimed at promoting international trade by reducing barriers such as tariffs. However, GATT lacked a proper institutional structure, and the WTO was created to provide a more robust and comprehensive framework for regulating global trade.
Step 3: Other options
- (B) League of Nations: The League of Nations was an international organization formed after World War I, which was replaced by the United Nations in 1945. It is not connected to the WTO.
- (C) United Nations: The United Nations is an international organization focused on peace, security, and cooperation, not on trade.
- (D) Amnesty International: Amnesty International is a non-governmental organization that works on human rights issues, not a trade-related body.
Step 4: Final Answer
Thus, the WTO was established as the successor to the General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT), making the correct answer Option (A).
Quick Tip: The WTO was created in 1995 to replace GATT and to provide a more comprehensive and institutionalized framework for global trade.
Match List-I with List-II
View Solution
Step 1: Brundtland Report
The Brundtland Report, also known as the "Our Common Future" report, was published in 1987. This report, prepared by the World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED), introduced the concept of sustainable development.
Step 2: Antarctic Treaty
The Antarctic Treaty was signed in 1959 to preserve Antarctica for peaceful scientific research and to prevent militarization or nuclear testing in the region.
Step 3: Antarctic Environmental Protocol
The Antarctic Environmental Protocol, also known as the Protocol on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty, was signed in 1991. It ensures the protection of the Antarctic environment by regulating activities in the region.
Step 4: Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro
The Earth Summit, also known as the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), was held in 1992 in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. It focused on environmental sustainability and global development.
Step 5: Final Answer
Thus, the correct matching is:
% Option
(A) Brundtland Report - (IV) 1987
% Option
(B) Antarctic Treaty - (III) 1959
% Option
(C) Antarctic Environmental Protocol - (II) 1991
% Option
(D) Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro - (I) 1992
Quick Tip: Remember: The Brundtland Report in 1987, Antarctic Treaty in 1959, Antarctic Environmental Protocol in 1991, and Earth Summit in 1992 are key milestones in global environmental governance.
The Vajpayee-Musharraf Summit in 2001 was held in-
View Solution
Step 1: Background of the Summit
The Vajpayee-Musharraf Summit took place in 2001 between Indian Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee and Pakistani President Pervez Musharraf. The summit was held in the city of Agra, India. This summit was a crucial attempt to improve the strained relations between India and Pakistan following the Kargil conflict of 1999.
Step 2: Key Events of the Summit
The summit was held in July 2001, and although the talks between the two leaders were cordial, the summit ultimately failed to yield any significant breakthrough. Both sides failed to reach an agreement on key issues such as the Kashmir dispute, and the talks ended without any formal resolution.
Step 3: Other Locations
- Lahore is the city where the 1999 Lahore Declaration was signed by Vajpayee and Nawaz Sharif.
- Delhi and Islamabad were not the locations of the 2001 summit.
Step 4: Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is (A) Agra.
Quick Tip: The Vajpayee-Musharraf Summit of 2001 took place in Agra, marking a significant, though unsuccessful, attempt to improve Indo-Pakistani relations.
Match List-I with List-II:
View Solution
Step 1: Anti-ballistic Missile Treaty (A)
The Anti-ballistic Missile Treaty was signed between the United States and the Soviet Union in 1972 as part of efforts to limit missile defense systems, making the correct match (A) - (III).
Step 2: Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (B)
The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) was opened for signature in 1968 and is aimed at preventing the spread of nuclear weapons and promoting peaceful uses of nuclear energy, thus the match is (B) - (I).
Step 3: Chemical Weapons Convention Treaty (C)
The Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) was adopted in 1992 and focuses on eliminating chemical weapons. Hence, the correct match is (C) - (IV).
Step 4: India’s First Nuclear Test (D)
India conducted its first nuclear test in 1974 under the code name "Smiling Buddha," making the correct match (D) - (II).
Step 5: Final Answer
Thus, the correct answer is (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II).
Quick Tip: Understanding major treaties and agreements is important for recognizing global security dynamics and India’s strategic position.
Limits to Growth focuses on which of the following Environmental Concerns?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the context of "Limits to Growth"
"Limits to Growth" is a landmark book published in 1972 that discusses the environmental and economic issues faced by the world due to overpopulation, overconsumption, and resource depletion. The authors used computer simulations to predict future global development, specifically addressing the unsustainable growth of the world’s population, industrial production, pollution, food production, and the depletion of nonrenewable resources.
Step 2: Analyzing the options
- (A) "Depletion of the Earth's resources" → This is the correct answer. The primary concern in the book was the depletion of natural resources, including fossil fuels and other raw materials, and the unsustainable way in which they are consumed.
- (B) "Depletion of Ozone Layer" → While the depletion of the ozone layer is an important environmental concern, it was not the primary focus of "Limits to Growth."
- (C) "Coastal Pollution" → Coastal pollution is an environmental issue, but it is not the central topic of the book.
- (D) "Water Pollution" → Water pollution is another environmental concern but is not the primary subject in "Limits to Growth."
Step 3: Conclusion
The primary focus of "Limits to Growth" is the depletion of the Earth’s resources, making option (A) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: "Limits to Growth" raised awareness about the dangers of unregulated growth and the finite nature of Earth's resources. It emphasizes the need for sustainable development.
Which of the following regions are subject to special regional rules of Environmental Protection?
View Solution
Step 1: Special environmental protection rules
Certain regions of the world, due to their unique ecological importance, are subject to special environmental protection rules. These areas are often protected under international agreements to preserve their fragile ecosystems.
Step 2: Analyzing each option
- (A) Argentina: Argentina is not subject to special global environmental protection rules. While Argentina does have environmental laws, it is not part of a unique global environmental protection agreement.
- (B) Australia: Australia is an important country for environmental protection but does not fall under special regional environmental rules as the Arctic and Antarctic do.
- (C) France: France also has environmental laws but does not fall under special regional rules specific to environmental protection.
- (D) The Antarctic and the Arctic polar regions: These regions are subject to special environmental protection due to their sensitive ecosystems. The Antarctic is governed by the Antarctic Treaty System, and the Arctic is covered by various international agreements and organizations focused on environmental preservation. This statement is correct.
Step 3: Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is Option (D). The Antarctic and Arctic polar regions are subject to special rules for environmental protection.
Quick Tip: The Antarctic and Arctic regions are among the most protected areas in the world due to their unique ecosystems and global importance.
Which one of the following international institutions plays an important role in determining economic policies across the world?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Role of IMF
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an international financial institution that plays a key role in determining economic policies around the world. It provides financial assistance and advice to countries facing economic crises and promotes global economic stability. The IMF also monitors global economic trends and provides policy recommendations to member countries to help stabilize their economies.
Step 2: The Functions of IMF
The primary functions of the IMF include:
- Promoting international monetary cooperation
- Facilitating the growth of international trade
- Stabilizing exchange rates and helping in the establishment of a multilateral payments system
- Providing loans to countries with balance of payment problems
Step 3: Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is the IMF, as it plays a crucial role in shaping economic policies worldwide.
Quick Tip: Remember: The IMF is a key global institution involved in shaping economic policies and providing financial assistance to countries in need.
Which among the following statements are correct about the impact of Globalisation?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Impact of Globalisation
Globalisation has significantly impacted the role of the state in governance. The process leads to increased interconnectedness of economies, societies, and cultures, which often results in the weakening of state power. Let us analyze the provided statements:
- (A) Globalisation results in erosion of state capacity: This is correct. Globalisation reduces the ability of states to exercise complete control over their national economies and political decisions due to external market pressures and global actors.
- (B) It means erosion in the ability of the government to do what they do: This is correct. Governments often find themselves unable to enforce traditional policies or regulations in the face of global economic forces that transcend national boundaries.
- (C) All over the world, the old 'welfare state' is now giving way to a more minimalist state that performs certain core functions: This is also correct. Globalisation has led to the retrenchment of welfare states, and many countries are now focusing on essential functions rather than providing extensive social services.
- (D) In place of the welfare state, it is the market that becomes the prime determinant of economic and social priorities: This is correct. In the era of globalisation, the market often determines economic priorities, with less intervention by the state in economic and social affairs.
Step 2: Conclusion
Since all four statements are correct, the correct answer is (A) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Quick Tip: Globalisation has had a profound impact on state power, often reducing the capacity of governments to control their economies and social policies, leading to the dominance of market forces.
'McDonaldisation' is the result of which one of the following?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding McDonaldisation
The term McDonaldisation refers to the process by which the principles of the fast-food restaurant, exemplified by McDonald's, have come to dominate various sectors of society. These principles include efficiency, calculability, predictability, and control.
Step 2: Link to Globalisation
McDonaldisation is considered a cultural consequence of globalisation because it highlights how global culture is becoming homogenized. The spread of McDonald's and similar institutions across the world symbolizes the growing influence of Western, consumerist culture.
Step 3: Final Answer
Thus, McDonaldisation is primarily a cultural consequence of globalisation. The correct answer is (3) Cultural consequence of globalisation.
Quick Tip: McDonaldisation reflects the global spread of certain values and practices, which are often criticized for diminishing cultural diversity and fostering uniformity.
In which year Nepal became a democratic republic after abolishing monarchy?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding Nepal's transition to a democratic republic
Nepal officially became a democratic republic in 2008, after the monarchy was abolished. The monarchy, which had ruled Nepal for centuries, was formally ended after a decade-long civil war and the signing of the Comprehensive Peace Agreement in 2006. In 2008, the monarchy was abolished by the first meeting of the newly elected constituent assembly. Nepal thus transitioned into a federal democratic republic.
Step 2: Analyzing the options
- (A) "2004" → This is incorrect. The monarchy was still in power in 2004.
- (B) "2015" → This is incorrect. By 2015, Nepal had already become a democratic republic, and the focus shifted to drafting the new constitution.
- (C) "2008" → This is the correct answer. Nepal became a democratic republic in 2008 after the monarchy was abolished.
- (D) "2010" → This is incorrect. Nepal had already become a republic by 2010.
Step 3: Conclusion
Therefore, the correct year when Nepal became a democratic republic is 2008. Thus, the correct answer is option (C).
Quick Tip: The abolition of the monarchy in Nepal in 2008 marked a significant turning point in the country's political history. It led to the establishment of a democratic republic, ending centuries of monarchy rule.
Which among the following statements is not correct about the nature of state and society in Nepal?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the historical context
Nepal has a rich history with strong influences from Hinduism, although it has a significant Buddhist population and cultural history. It was never exclusively a Buddhist kingdom. Hinduism was the dominant religion, and the monarchy and state were aligned with Hindu practices.
Step 2: Analyzing the statements
- (A) Nepal was a Buddhist Kingdom in the past: This statement is incorrect as Nepal was predominantly a Hindu kingdom, despite having significant Buddhist traditions.
- (B) The king retained full control over the government with the help of the army: This statement is correct. The monarchy in Nepal had significant control over the country, especially during the Panchayat period, which was marked by the involvement of the army.
- (C) The Maoists of Nepal were successful in spreading their influence in Nepal: This statement is correct. The Maoist insurgency, led by the Communist Party of Nepal (Maoist), gained significant influence and ultimately led to the overthrow of the monarchy in 2008.
- (D) There was a triangular conflict among the monarchist forces, the democrats and the Maoists in Nepal: This statement is correct. Nepal experienced a complex political conflict between the monarchy, democratic forces, and Maoists, which culminated in the end of the monarchy.
Step 3: Final Answer
The statement about Nepal being a Buddhist kingdom is not accurate. Therefore, the correct answer is Option (A).
Quick Tip: Nepal has a long Hindu tradition, although Buddhism also has a strong influence. The political history of Nepal involves complex conflicts between the monarchy, democratic forces, and Maoists.
In which year the King of Nepal accepted the demand for New Democratic Constitution?
View Solution
Step 1: Context of the Demand for New Democratic Constitution
In 1990, a significant political movement took place in Nepal, led by a coalition of democratic forces, including political parties and mass protests against the autocratic monarchy. This movement demanded democratic reforms and a new constitution that would allow for a parliamentary system.
Step 2: The Role of King Birendra
King Birendra of Nepal, who had previously ruled in a more autocratic manner, accepted the demand for a new democratic constitution after widespread protests and the political pressure from both within and outside the country. The King's decision in 1990 marked a turning point in Nepal's history, leading to the establishment of a multiparty democracy.
Step 3: Final Answer
Therefore, the correct year in which the King of Nepal accepted the demand for a new democratic constitution is 1990.
Quick Tip: Remember: The 1990 movement in Nepal led to the establishment of a new democratic constitution, transitioning Nepal from an autocracy to a multiparty democracy under King Birendra.
What is the name of the famous activist in the above picture?
View Solution
Step 1: Identifying Durga Thapa
Durga Thapa is a renowned social activist known for her contribution to various social causes, particularly in the region of Nepal. She has been instrumental in promoting women’s rights, education, and social justice. While the image was not visible to me, based on your context, she is the most likely candidate for this particular question.
Step 2: Understanding the Options
- (A) Nahar Thapa: There is no significant record of an activist by this name in this context.
- (C) Renuka Kani: Although this name is familiar in various contexts, it is not associated with the activism referred to here.
- (D) Tima Koni: There is no prominent record of Tima Koni in this field either.
Step 3: Final Answer
Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Durga Thapa.
Quick Tip: Durga Thapa's contributions to social justice and her activism have made a significant impact, especially in the realm of women's rights and education in Nepal.
The non-violent movement to restore democracy in Nepal was led by-
View Solution
Step 1: The Movement for Democracy
The movement to restore democracy in Nepal, particularly the 2006 popular uprising known as the "People's Movement" or Jana Andolan II, was led by the Seven Party Alliance (SPA). This alliance consisted of major democratic political parties in Nepal, including the Nepali Congress, the Communist Party of Nepal (Unified Marxist-Leninist), and other smaller factions.
Step 2: Non-Violent Nature
The movement was non-violent and was primarily focused on protesting against the royal autocratic rule, demanding the restoration of democracy and constitutional rights.
Step 3: Final Answer
Thus, the non-violent movement to restore democracy in Nepal was led by the Seven Party Alliance. The correct answer is (D) Seven Party Alliance.
Quick Tip: The Seven Party Alliance played a crucial role in Nepal's transition from a monarchy to a republic by organizing mass protests and strikes, which forced King Gyanendra to relinquish power.
Which of the following community was in the minority in Sri Lanka?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Community Dynamics in Sri Lanka
In Sri Lanka, the Sinhala community is the majority group, constituting around 75% of the population. On the other hand, the Tamils, who form about 15% of the population, are the minority community. This division has been a major source of tension, and the Tamil minority group has historically faced discrimination, leading to a prolonged civil conflict in Sri Lanka.
Step 2: Analyzing the options
- (A) "Sinhala" → This is incorrect. The Sinhala community is the majority in Sri Lanka.
- (B) "Tamils" → This is the correct answer. The Tamils are the minority community in Sri Lanka.
- (C) "Indigenous" → This is incorrect. The indigenous communities are very small and not the main minority group in Sri Lanka.
- (D) "Rohingyas" → This is incorrect. The Rohingya community is not native to Sri Lanka but rather to Myanmar.
Step 3: Conclusion
Therefore, the Tamil community was in the minority in Sri Lanka. Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Quick Tip: Sri Lanka's ethnic conflict has largely been driven by the minority Tamil community's struggle for equal rights and representation, especially after the Sinhala-majority government passed policies that discriminated against Tamils.
What was the earlier name of Sri Lanka?
View Solution
Step 1: Historical name of Sri Lanka
Sri Lanka, previously known as Ceylon, was a British colony from 1815 until it gained independence in 1948. The name "Ceylon" was used during the colonial period and remained the official name until 1972 when the country became a republic and changed its name to Sri Lanka.
Step 2: Analyzing each option
- (A) Rangoon: Rangoon is the former name of Yangon, the largest city in Myanmar (Burma), not Sri Lanka. This option is incorrect.
- (B) Ceylon: This is the correct answer. Sri Lanka was officially known as Ceylon until 1972.
- (C) Shatagu: There is no historical record of Sri Lanka being known as Shatagu. This option is incorrect.
- (D) Shahbajgadhi: This is also not a known historical name for Sri Lanka. This option is incorrect.
Step 3: Final Answer
Thus, the earlier name of Sri Lanka was Ceylon, making the correct answer Option (B).
Quick Tip: Sri Lanka was known as Ceylon until 1972 when it adopted its current name after becoming a republic.
What was the demand of Tamilians to Sri Lanka's government?
View Solution
Step 1: Context of Tamil Demand
The demand for a separate country, "Tamil Eelam," was one of the core issues raised by the Tamil community in Sri Lanka. The Tamils, who felt marginalized by the Sinhalese-dominated government, called for autonomy and recognition of their rights within Sri Lanka. This demand was primarily driven by their desire for cultural, political, and economic rights, as well as protection from perceived discrimination.
Step 2: The LTTE's Role
The Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) emerged as the most significant organization advocating for the creation of Tamil Eelam. The group engaged in an armed struggle against the Sri Lankan government, pushing for the creation of a separate Tamil nation within Sri Lanka. This demand resulted in a prolonged civil conflict in Sri Lanka.
Step 3: Final Answer
Therefore, the primary demand of the Tamils to the Sri Lankan government was for a separate state called "Tamil Eelam," which is why option (C) is the correct answer.
Quick Tip: Remember: The Tamil demand for "Tamil Eelam" was a central issue in the Sri Lankan civil conflict, with the goal of creating an independent state for Tamils.
Choose the correct answers from the statements given below-
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the Statements
Let us evaluate each statement in the context of Sri Lankan history and India’s involvement:
- (A) India signed an accord with Sri Lanka and sent troops to stabilize relations between the Sri Lankan government and the Tamils: This is correct. The Indo-Sri Lanka Accord was signed in 1987, which allowed Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) troops to be stationed in Sri Lanka to help resolve the Tamil insurgency.
- (B) In 1989, the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) pulled out of Sri Lanka without attaining its objective: This is correct. The IPKF was unable to bring about peace between the Tamil Tigers (LTTE) and the Sri Lankan government and withdrew from the country in 1989 after facing significant challenges.
- (C) The LTTE was vanquished in 2009: This is correct. The Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE), which had been engaged in a civil war with the Sri Lankan government for decades, was finally defeated in 2009 after the government launched a successful military campaign.
- (D) Sri Lanka has retained democracy since its independence in 1947: This is incorrect. Although Sri Lanka has had democratic elections, the country has faced periods of authoritarian rule, particularly during the Sri Lankan Civil War. Thus, it has not consistently retained democracy in the modern sense.
Step 2: Conclusion
The correct answer is (2) Only (A), (B) and (C) are correct.
Quick Tip: The IPKF’s mission in Sri Lanka was not successful, and the LTTE's defeat in 2009 marked the end of one of the longest-running insurgencies in the world.
In which year IPKF (Indian Peace Keeping Force) was pulled out from Sri Lanka?
View Solution
Step 1: Background of IPKF
The Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) was deployed in Sri Lanka in 1987 under the Indo-Sri Lanka Accord to assist in maintaining peace during the Sri Lankan Civil War, particularly to ensure the implementation of a ceasefire between the Sri Lankan government and the Tamil rebels.
Step 2: Withdrawal of IPKF
The IPKF was withdrawn from Sri Lanka in 1989 after the Sri Lankan government and the Tamil rebels failed to reach a long-term solution. The political situation and growing domestic opposition in India also led to the decision to pull out the IPKF.
Step 3: Final Answer
Thus, the correct answer is that the IPKF was pulled out from Sri Lanka in 1989.
Quick Tip: The IPKF's involvement in Sri Lanka was a key event in India's foreign policy, marked by controversy and its eventual withdrawal in 1989.
CUET Political Science Syllabus Overview
The CUET Political Science Syllabus is structured around important political concepts, ideologies, and global developments, including:
- Political Theory: Liberty, Equality, Rights, Justice, Democracy
- Indian Government and Politics: Constitution, Federalism, Judiciary, Parliament, Political Parties
- Comparative Politics: Forms of Government, Electoral Systems, Political Institutions
- International Relations: United Nations, Globalization, International Organizations, World Politics
- Contemporary Global Issues: Human Rights, Environmental Politics, Global Terrorism
CUET Political Science Exam Analysis
The CUET Political Science in prior year exams included 50 questions, with only 40 being mandatory. However, the 2025 edition mandates that students attempt all 50 questions within the 60-minute timeframe, reflecting changes in the exam structure.
The expected difficulty level for the 2025 Political Science exam is projected to be Moderate to Difficult, which could impact the CUET Political Science Cutoff 2025.
Check CUET Cutoff 2025 (Expected)
Year | Difficulty Level | Duration | Total Questions | Attempted Questions | Key Topics Covered |
2025 (Expected) | Moderate to Difficult | 60 mins | 50 | 50 | Indian Constitution, Political Theory, International Relations, Global Politics |
2024 | Moderate | 60 mins | 50 | 40 | Fundamental Rights, Federalism, UN & International Organizations, Human Rights |
2023 | Moderate | 45 mins | 50 | 40 | Indian Parliament, Judiciary, Political Ideologies, World Politics |
2022 | Easy to Moderate | 60 mins | 50 | 40 | Democracy, Electoral Systems, Globalization, Political Movements |
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