CUET Physical Education Question Paper 2025 with Answer Key

Step 1: Understanding Communicable Diseases

Communicable diseases are those that can be transmitted from one individual to another, typically through direct contact, bodily fluids, or through vectors such as insects. These diseases are also known as "transmissible" diseases, as they are capable of being passed on from one person to another.


Step 2: Analyzing the options

- (A) "Epidemics" → This is incorrect. An epidemic refers to the widespread occurrence of a disease in a specific area, not a synonym for communicable diseases.

- (B) "Transmissible" → This is the correct answer. Communicable diseases are also known as transmissible diseases because they can spread from one individual to another.

- (C) "Rodent" → This is incorrect. Rodents are animals that can sometimes act as vectors for communicable diseases, but the term "rodent" is not synonymous with communicable diseases.

- (D) "Contaminated" → This is incorrect. Contaminated refers to something that has been made impure or harmful, but it is not a synonym for communicable diseases.


Step 3: Conclusion

The correct answer is option (B), as communicable diseases are also known as transmissible diseases due to their ability to be transmitted between individuals.
Quick Tip: "Transmissible" diseases are those that can spread from one person to another, unlike other diseases that are non-communicable or chronic.

Step 1: Role of insulin hormone

Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that regulates blood sugar (glucose) levels. It helps the body use glucose from food for energy or store it for future use. Insulin is essential for maintaining healthy blood sugar levels.


Step 2: Diseases related to insulin secretion

When the body does not produce enough insulin, or when the body cannot use insulin effectively, it leads to diabetes. Diabetes is a condition where blood sugar levels are consistently high.


Step 3: Analyzing each option

- (A) Hypertension: Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is not caused by inadequate insulin secretion. It is typically caused by factors such as diet, stress, and genetics.

- (B) Depression: Depression is a mental health disorder, not related to insulin secretion. It is caused by a variety of factors, including genetics, life events, and brain chemistry.

- (C) Diabetes: Diabetes is caused by inadequate secretion or poor functioning of insulin, which leads to high blood sugar levels. This statement is correct.

- (D) Migraine: Migraines are severe headaches that are unrelated to insulin secretion and are typically caused by triggers such as stress, hormonal changes, or certain foods.


Step 4: Final Answer

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (C). Diabetes is caused due to inadequate secretion of the insulin hormone.
Quick Tip: Inadequate insulin secretion leads to diabetes, a condition characterized by high blood sugar levels. Managing blood sugar levels is crucial in diabetes care.

Step 1: National Rural Health Mission (NRHM)

The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched by the Government of India in 2005 with the aim of improving healthcare delivery across rural areas. The mission focused on providing accessible, affordable, and quality healthcare to rural populations, particularly for women and children.


Step 2: Key Objectives of NRHM

The NRHM aimed at strengthening rural healthcare infrastructure, improving the accessibility of essential health services, and enhancing the health outcomes of rural communities. It also focused on promoting community-based health programs and building a better workforce of health professionals.


Step 3: Final Answer

Therefore, the correct year when the National Rural Health Mission was launched is 2005.
Quick Tip: Remember: The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched in 2005 to improve rural healthcare in India, focusing on accessibility and quality services for rural populations.

Step 1: Introduction to Annapurna Yojna

The Annapurna Yojna is a food security program launched by the Government of India in 2001 to provide subsidized food grains to senior citizens who are below the poverty line and have no source of income. It is part of India’s effort to tackle hunger and improve food security for vulnerable groups in society.


Step 2: Key Features of the Scheme

- The Annapurna Yojna offers 10 kg of food grains (wheat or rice) per month to eligible beneficiaries at a subsidized rate of Rs. 2 per kg for wheat and Rs. 3 per kg for rice.
- The scheme aims to ensure that poor and elderly citizens do not suffer from food insecurity.


Step 3: Final Answer

Therefore, the Annapurna Yojna was launched in 2001.
Quick Tip: Annapurna Yojna is one of the major schemes in India to support the elderly and provide them with essential food items at highly subsidized rates.

Step 1: Understanding NRHM

The National Rural Health Mission (NRHM) was launched in India to provide accessible, affordable, and quality health care to rural areas, especially in underserved regions.


Step 2: Special Focus States

While NRHM is operational across the entire country, it has special focus on 18 states in India that are considered to be most in need of health reforms, including issues like high maternal mortality rates and lack of basic healthcare infrastructure.


Step 3: Final Answer

Thus, the correct answer is 18 states.
Quick Tip: NRHM focuses on improving health infrastructure in rural areas, with priority given to the 18 states facing the most significant healthcare challenges.

Step 1: Understanding the Disease Classification

Malaria is caused by a type of protozoan parasite called Plasmodium. This is transmitted to humans through the bites of infected Anopheles mosquitoes. As such, malaria is classified as a protozoal disease.


Step 2: Analyzing the options

- (A) "Fungal" → This is incorrect. Fungal diseases are caused by fungi, but malaria is not a fungal disease.

- (B) "Protozoal" → This is the correct answer. Malaria is caused by protozoans, specifically the Plasmodium species, making it a protozoal disease.

- (C) "Viral" → This is incorrect. Viruses cause viral diseases, but malaria is not caused by a virus.

- (D) "Bacterial" → This is incorrect. Bacteria cause bacterial diseases, but malaria is not a bacterial disease.


Step 3: Conclusion

The correct answer is option (B), as malaria is a protozoal disease caused by the Plasmodium parasite.
Quick Tip: Malaria is a vector-borne disease caused by protozoans and transmitted through mosquito bites.

Step 1: Understanding the weights

- Football: The official weight of a football ranges between 155.9-163 grams. This corresponds to (I).

- Cricket Ball: The official weight of a cricket ball is between 325-375 grams. This corresponds to (III).

- Volleyball: The official weight of a volleyball is between 410-450 grams. This corresponds to (IV).

- Hand Ball (Women): The official weight of a hand ball for women is between 260-280 grams. This corresponds to (II).


Step 2: Matching the correct pairs

- Football - (I) 155.9-163 grams
- Cricket Ball - (III) 325-375 grams
- Volleyball - (IV) 410-450 grams
- Hand Ball (Women) - (II) 260-280 grams


Step 3: Final Answer

Thus, the correct match is Option (3).
Quick Tip: It is important to know the official weight of sports balls for various competitions. These weights ensure consistency in performance and fair play.

Step 1: Swimming and Temperature Guidelines

For optimal comfort and safety during swimming, the water temperature is a critical factor. Various international swimming organizations, including the International Swimming Federation (FINA), recommend a minimum water temperature for competitive swimming.


Step 2: Recommended Minimum Temperature

According to FINA guidelines, the water temperature for swimming competitions should not be less than 27° Centigrade. Below this temperature, swimmers may experience discomfort, which can affect performance and increase the risk of hypothermia.


Step 3: Final Answer

Therefore, the water temperature in swimming should not be less than 27° Centigrade.
Quick Tip: Remember: The recommended minimum water temperature for swimming is 27°C to ensure the comfort and safety of swimmers.

Step 1: Understanding the Dimensions of a Basketball Court

According to the official specifications for a standard basketball court, the dimensions of the court must be 28 meters by 15 meters (length x width). This dimension is universally accepted for international games and competitions, ensuring uniformity and standardization across the sport.


Step 2: Evaluation of Other Options

- Option (A) 27m x 15m: This is not correct, as it is slightly shorter in length than the standard.
- Option (C) 28m x 14m: While the length is correct, the width is shorter than the standard court size.
- Option (D) 27m x 14m: This is incorrect, as both dimensions do not meet the official standards.


Step 3: Final Answer

The correct dimensions for a standard basketball court are 28m x 15m, which makes option (B) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: The official size of a standard basketball court used in international competitions is 28 meters in length and 15 meters in width. This ensures consistency in gameplay across all professional arenas.

Step 1: Understanding Triple Jump

Triple Jump, also known as the hop, step, and jump, is a track and field event in which an athlete must complete a sequence of three distinct phases: a hop, a step, and then a jump.


Step 2: The Correct Order

The correct order for Triple Jump is Hop, step, and jump. The athlete first hops on one leg, then steps onto the ground with the other leg, and finally performs a jump to land in the sandpit.


Step 3: Final Answer

Thus, the correct answer is (A) Hop, step and jump.
Quick Tip: In Triple Jump, the athlete needs to maintain momentum and rhythm through the hop, step, and jump phases to achieve a successful jump.

Step 1: Analyzing Equipment

- (A) Antennae are used in Volleyball. In volleyball, antennas are attached to the net to indicate the playing area boundaries. So, (A) matches (III).

- (B) The Alternating possession arrow is used in Basketball. This arrow is used to determine which team gets the ball after a jump ball. So, (B) matches (I).

- (C) Goalposts are used in Football. They are the central equipment for scoring goals in football. So, (C) matches (IV).

- (D) Bails are used in Cricket. In cricket, the bails are placed on the stumps and are dislodged when a batsman is out. So, (D) matches (II).


Step 2: Conclusion

Thus, the correct matching is:
- (A) - (III)

- (B) - (I)

- (C) - (IV)

- (D) - (II)
Quick Tip: Each piece of equipment in a sport plays a specific role. For example, antennas in volleyball, bails in cricket, and goalposts in football are key to their respective games.

Step 1: Understanding the role in basketball

In basketball, different officials perform various tasks such as tracking time, scoring, and indicating fouls. The assistant scorer is responsible for tracking fouls committed by players and indicating them to both head coaches, as described in the question.


Step 2: Analyzing the options

- (A) Assistant scorer: The assistant scorer keeps track of the fouls committed by each player and visibly raises the foul markers, as described in the scenario. This is the correct answer.

- (B) Scorer: A scorer typically records points and other statistics but may not specifically indicate fouls during the game.

- (C) Timer: The timer's job is to keep track of game time, not fouls.

- (D) Shot clock operator: The shot clock operator tracks the time remaining for a team to attempt a shot, not fouls.


Step 3: Final Answer

The correct role based on the description is the assistant scorer, making Option (A) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: In basketball, the assistant scorer tracks player fouls and makes them visible to both coaches during the game.

Step 1: Understanding the 1500 Meter Race

In competitive swimming, the 1500 meters race is typically held in the freestyle event. The freestyle race is known for being the fastest swimming stroke, and the 1500 meters is one of the longest distances swum in this category.


Step 2: Other Swimming Events

- The Butterfly and Breaststroke events usually involve shorter distances, typically ranging from 50 meters to 400 meters.
- Backstroke is also a common event but not typically associated with distances as long as 1500 meters in standard competitions.


Step 3: Final Answer

Therefore, since Ranvir is covering 1500 meters, he is most likely participating in the Free style event.
Quick Tip: Remember: The 1500 meters race is typically part of the freestyle event in competitive swimming. This is one of the longest distances swum in the competition.

Step 1: Understanding Pranayama

Pranayama in yoga refers to techniques that involve regulation of breath. These practices are part of the eight limbs of yoga and are aimed at enhancing the flow of life energy (prana) in the body.


Step 2: Classifying the techniques

- Sitali (A): This is a cooling pranayama technique. It involves inhaling through the rolled tongue and exhaling through the nose. It is used to reduce body heat and calm the mind. Hence, it is classified under pranayama.

- Bhramari (B): Known as the "bee breath", this involves producing a humming sound while exhaling. It promotes relaxation and is widely practiced as a pranayama technique.

- Uddiyana (C): This is technically a bandha (abdominal lock), not a pranayama. It is used in advanced yogic practices but is not classified under breathing techniques.

- Sheetkari (D): Similar to Sitali, this is also a cooling breath practice. It is done by inhaling through the teeth and exhaling through the nose, thus making it a pranayama technique.


Step 3: Conclusion

Among the given options, (A) Sitali, (B) Bhramari, and (D) Sheetkari are pranayama techniques. (C) Uddiyana is a bandha, not a pranayama.
Quick Tip: Remember: Sitali, Bhramari, and Sheetkari are classic pranayama techniques. Uddiyana is a bandha (lock) and used in conjunction with pranayama, but is not itself a pranayama.

Step 1: The Prayer Pose (C)

The Sun Salutation begins with the Prayer Pose (C), where you stand with your hands in a prayer position in front of the chest. This position is often used as a starting point in many yoga sequences.


Step 2: Raised Arms Pose (B)

Next, you move into the Raised Arms Pose (B), where you extend your arms overhead, stretching the body. This helps in opening up the chest and lengthening the spine.


Step 3: Equestrian Pose (A)

Then, you step into the Equestrian Pose (A), where you bring one foot forward into a lunge while the other leg remains extended back. This pose helps stretch the legs and hips.


Step 4: Mountain Pose (D)

Finally, you complete the sequence with the Mountain Pose (D), where you return to a standing position, aligning your body with your feet hip-width apart and your arms at your sides.


Step 5: Final Answer

Thus, the correct order of steps in Sun Salutation is (C), (B), (A), (D).
Quick Tip: Sun Salutation, or Surya Namaskar, is a complete sequence of yoga poses designed to warm up the body, increase flexibility, and promote mindfulness.

Step 1: Understanding Each Asana

- Trikonasana (Triangle Pose): This is a standing yoga pose where the legs are spread wide, and the body is bent sideways to touch the toes.

- Tadasana (Mountain Pose): This is a foundational standing pose in yoga where you stand tall with arms overhead.

- Shalabhasana (Locust Pose): This is a prone pose, practiced while lying on the stomach and lifting the legs and chest off the ground. It is NOT a standing pose.

- Vrikshasana (Tree Pose): A standing balance pose where one leg is bent and the foot is placed on the opposite thigh.


Step 2: Final Conclusion

Since Shalabhasana is performed lying down on the stomach and involves lifting the body parts off the ground while prone, it is the only one among the options that is NOT practiced in a standing position.

\[ \boxed{Correct Answer: (C) Shalabhasana} \] Quick Tip: Remember: If the name of the asana includes poses like “locust” or involves lying down, it’s likely not a standing pose.

Step 1: Understanding the word "Bhramari"

The word Bhramari is derived from the Sanskrit word “Bhramara”, which means “black bee” or “humming bee.” This naming is based on the humming sound made during the practice of this specific breathing technique in yoga.


Step 2: What is Bhramari Pranayama?

Bhramari Pranayama is a type of yogic breathing where the practitioner inhales deeply and then exhales while making a humming sound similar to that of a bee. The sound vibrations calm the mind and soothe the nervous system.


Step 3: Analyzing the options

- (A) Black ant: Incorrect. "Bhramari" does not mean black ant.
- (B) Black snail: Incorrect. This is unrelated to the word's etymology.
- (C) Black bee: Correct. The word directly translates to “black bee,” which represents the sound made during this pranayama.
- (D) Black snake: Incorrect. Not related to the context or root word.


Step 4: Final Answer

Thus, the correct meaning of Bhramari is Black bee, i.e., Option (C).
Quick Tip: Remember: Bhramari Pranayama is named after the black bee because of the soothing humming sound produced during exhalation.

Step 1: Understanding Uddiyana Bandha

Uddiyana is a yogic practice known as "Uddiyana Bandha" or abdominal lock. In this technique, the diaphragm is lifted, and the abdominal muscles are pulled inward and upward after exhaling completely. This creates a hollow space under the rib cage. While the practice is mainly abdominal, the posture of the tongue also plays a part in the overall bandha setup.


Step 2: Tongue in Uddiyana

During the practice of Uddiyana Bandha, especially when combined with other mudras or pranayama techniques, the tongue is sometimes curled backward (in conjunction with Jihva Bandha or Khechari Mudra). This curled shape of the tongue is often described as resembling a fresh curled leaf.


Step 3: Elimination of Other Options

- Bhramari involves humming and has no specific tongue posture.

- Sheetkari and Sitali are cooling pranayamas where the tongue may be rolled, but not in the way that resembles a "fresh curled leaf."


Step 4: Final Answer

Hence, the correct answer is Uddiyana, where the curled tongue posture can be observed.
Quick Tip: In yogic techniques, Uddiyana Bandha involves specific muscular and energetic locks — including one where the tongue curls like a fresh leaf in advanced practices.

Step 1: Understanding the definition in the context of yoga

The question refers to a specific yogic posture that involves the contraction and control of certain internal organs or body parts. This is a classical description of a "Bandha" in yoga.


Step 2: What is Bandha?

In Sanskrit, Bandha means "lock" or "binding". In yogic practice, it refers to the intentional contraction of specific muscle groups and energy centers to direct the flow of prana (vital energy). The three major Bandhas are:
- Mula Bandha (root lock) — contraction of the perineum

- Uddiyana Bandha (abdominal lock) — contraction of the lower abdominal muscles

- Jalandhara Bandha (throat lock) — contraction of the throat by tucking the chin to the chest


Step 3: Why not the others?

- Prana refers to life force or vital energy, not a posture.

- Nadi refers to energy channels through which prana flows.

- Chakra refers to energy centers in the subtle body.


Step 4: Final Answer

Thus, the posture that involves contraction and control of specific organs is called Bandha.
Quick Tip: Remember: "Bandha" in yoga is a technique used to lock energy in specific areas of the body to enhance concentration and control of prana.

Step 1: Breakdown of the term "Kapalbhati"

The word Kapalbhati is a combination of two Sanskrit words:
- Kapal means "skull" or "forehead", and
- Bhati means "light", "perception", or "shine".


Step 2: Interpretation

Together, the term implies an act that brings clarity or illumination to the skull or forehead region. This yogic practice is known to purify the frontal brain and sinus, and promote mental clarity and alertness — metaphorically “lighting” the skull.


Step 3: Final Answer

Therefore, the correct meaning of "bhati" in Kapalbhati is light.
Quick Tip: Kapalbhati is a kriya (cleansing technique) in yoga that energizes the mind and improves respiratory function. Remember: \(\textbf{Kapal = skull}\), \(\textbf{Bhati = light}\).

Step 1: Understand the meaning of each injury type.

- Transverse fracture: A horizontal \((straight) break across the bone \Rightarrow\) (II)
- \(\textbf{Oblique fracture:}\) A diagonal break through the bone \(\Rightarrow\) (IV)
- \(\textbf{Impacted fracture:}\) When the broken ends of bones are jammed into each other \(\Rightarrow\) (I)
- \(\textbf{Comminuted fracture:}\) When the bone is shattered into three or more pieces \(\Rightarrow\) (III)


Final Matching:

% Option
(A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
\[ \boxed{Correct Option: (D)} \] Quick Tip: Fracture types are based on the angle, impact, and number of fragments. Learn the key terms like “Transverse = straight”, “Oblique = diagonal”, “Impacted = jammed”, and “Comminuted = multiple fragments”.

Step 1: Understanding Body Mass Index (BMI)

BMI is a measure used to categorize individuals based on their weight in relation to their height. It is calculated using the formula: \[ BMI = \frac{Weight (kg)}{[Height (m)]^2} \]

Step 2: WHO classification of obesity

According to the World Health Organization (WHO), BMI categories are as follows:
- Underweight: BMI < 18.5

- Normal weight: BMI 18.5–24.9

- Overweight (Pre-obese): BMI 25.0–29.9

- Obesity Grade I: BMI 30.0–34.9

- Obesity Grade II: BMI 35.0–39.9

- Obesity Grade III (Severe or Morbid Obesity): BMI ≥ 40.0


Step 3: Matching Grade II Obesity

Grade II obesity falls in the BMI range of 35.0 to 39.9, which corresponds to Option (C).


Step 4: Final Answer

Hence, the correct answer is Option (C): 35.0–39.9.
Quick Tip: Grade II obesity is considered a serious health risk and often requires clinical intervention, lifestyle changes, and monitoring.

Step 1: Understanding what "stimulants" are

Stimulants are substances that increase activity in the brain, elevate mood, increase alertness, and boost energy levels. They are often used medically to treat conditions like ADHD or narcolepsy, but they are also substances that are regulated in sports due to their performance-enhancing effects.


Step 2: Classifying the substances

- (A) Acetazolamide: This is a diuretic and not a stimulant. It is used to treat glaucoma, epilepsy, and altitude sickness.

- (B) Amphetamines: These are potent central nervous system (CNS) stimulants. They are used to treat ADHD and narcolepsy.

- (C) Caffeine: This is a mild stimulant found in coffee, tea, and many energy drinks. It enhances alertness and reduces fatigue.

- (D) Ephedrine: This is a sympathomimetic stimulant used in some medications for asthma and congestion. It has performance-enhancing and fat-burning effects.


Step 3: Final Answer

Only (B) Amphetamines, (C) Caffeine, and (D) Ephedrine are stimulants. Acetazolamide is not.
Quick Tip: Remember: Amphetamines, Caffeine, and Ephedrine are common stimulants. Acetazolamide is a diuretic and not a stimulant.

Step 1: Understanding the terms

- A Sprain is an injury involving the stretching or tearing of ligaments, which are the tissues that connect bones at a joint.
- A Strain involves damage to muscles or tendons (not ligaments).
- A Contusion is another term for a bruise, usually resulting from a blunt force impact.
- An Avulsion refers to a condition where a fragment of bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament.


Step 2: Evaluating the scenario

The question specifically mentions "stretching or tearing of his ligaments", which is the textbook definition of a sprain. This typically occurs in joints like the ankle, knee, or wrist during activities involving sudden twists or impacts.


Step 3: Final Answer

Since ligaments are affected in this case, the correct diagnosis of the injury is a sprain.
Quick Tip: Remember: Sprains involve ligaments, strains involve muscles or tendons. Stretching or tearing of ligaments is always classified as a sprain.

Step 1: Role of Sports in Society

Sports are a powerful tool for bringing people together, bridging divides, and promoting inclusivity and fairness. They often help break down barriers of race, gender, class, and religion.


Step 2: Evaluating the Options

- (A) Sports indeed provide a common platform for diverse people to unite.

- (C) Sports events celebrate cultural heritage and shared traditions.

- (D) Group harmony is promoted through team-based activities, mutual respect, and fair play.

- (B), however, describes the opposite of what sports aim to achieve. Promoting discrimination, inequality, and poverty contradicts the very spirit of sports and is not their role.


Step 3: Final Answer

Therefore, the correct answer is (B) Promotes discrimination, inequality and poverty, as this is not the role of sports.
Quick Tip: Always look for negatively framed questions like "Not the role..." and identify the odd one out by using the core purpose of sports — unity, equality, and social cohesion.

The National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India. Its functions include:


Promoting anti-doping awareness and education among athletes.

Implementing national-level dope control programs.

Ensuring compliance with World Anti-Doping Code.



Option (D) correctly refers to NADA's mandate of running control programmes in sports in all its forms within the country, making it the accurate choice.
\[ \boxed{Correct Option: (D)} \] Quick Tip: NADA focuses on Indian sports at the national level. Avoid options referring to international scope when dealing with national agencies.

Step 1: Understanding course durations

Let us understand the typical duration of each course mentioned:
- (D) Bachelor's Degree in Physical Education: Typically a 3–4 year undergraduate degree.
- (A) Master's Degree in Physical Education: Usually a 2-year postgraduate degree.
- (C) Diploma in Sports Coaching: Usually ranges from 1 year to 18 months.
- (B) Certificate Course in Sports Coaching: Typically a short-term course ranging from a few weeks to 6 months.


Step 2: Arranging in descending order of duration

From the above durations:
1. (D) Bachelor’s Degree
2. (A) Master’s Degree
3. (C) Diploma
4. (B) Certificate Course


Step 3: Final Answer

Thus, the correct order from maximum to minimum duration is: (D), (A), (C), (B)

Hence, the correct option is Option (3).
Quick Tip: Remember: Degree courses take more time than diplomas and certificates. Bachelor’s degrees are longer than Master’s in most educational tracks.

Step 1: Understanding India's top sporting awards

India confers several prestigious awards to recognize outstanding contributions in sports, including the Arjuna Award, Dronacharya Award, and the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award. Each award has its own criteria and purpose.


Step 2: Purpose and ranking of awards

- The Arjuna Award is given for consistent outstanding performance in sports over four years.

- The Dronacharya Award honors coaches for producing medal winners at international events.

- The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award (previously known simply as the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna) is the highest sporting honor in India. It is awarded for the most outstanding performance by a sportsperson over a period of four years at the international level.

- The Rani Lakshmibai Award is a state-level award (e.g., in Uttar Pradesh) and not a national-level honor.


Step 3: Final Answer

Hence, the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is the highest sporting honor in India.
Quick Tip: Remember: The Khel Ratna Award, renamed after Major Dhyan Chand, is India’s most prestigious sporting award.

Step 1: Understanding the Award

The Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award is the highest sporting honour in India. It is presented by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports to recognize outstanding performance in the field of sports over a period of four years.


Step 2: Cash Prize Details

As of recent updates, the award carries a prestigious cash prize of Rs. 25 lakhs along with a medal and a citation. This amount is the highest among Indian sports awards.


Step 3: Other Awards and Their Prize

- The Arjuna Award comes with a cash prize of Rs. 15 lakhs.

- The Dronacharya Award (for coaches) carries a cash prize of Rs. 15 lakhs.

- The Rani Lakshmi Bai Award is not associated with the sports ministry and does not carry the same national recognition or prize amount as the Khel Ratna.


Step 4: Final Answer

Hence, the correct answer is (A) Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, as it includes a cash prize of Rs. 25 lakhs.
Quick Tip: The Khel Ratna is India’s most prestigious sports award and includes the highest cash prize among national sports honours—Rs. 25 lakhs.

Step 1: Understanding the Initiative

The Khelo India program was launched in the year 2017-18 by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports, Government of India. Its goal is to revitalize the sports culture in India at the grassroots level by building a strong framework for all sports played in our country and establishing India as a great sporting nation.


Step 2: Key Features of the Program

Khelo India focuses on:
- Identification of young sporting talent

- Providing scholarships and support to selected athletes

- Organizing competitions such as the Khelo India School Games and Khelo India Youth Games

- Development of sports infrastructure

- Promotion of traditional Indian sports


Step 3: Final Answer

Based on the description, the correct answer is (C) Khelo India.
Quick Tip: Remember: The \(\textbf{Khelo India}\) program is India’s flagship initiative for promoting youth participation in sports and nurturing talent from the grassroots.

The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) is a statutory body under the Government of India responsible for overseeing standards and procedures in teacher education. It grants recognition to institutions offering teaching courses (like B.Ed, D.El.Ed) in India.

Teaching courses that are not recognized by NCTE are considered invalid for employment as teachers in schools and educational institutions. Other bodies like UGC and CBSE have their own domains but do not grant recognition for teacher education courses.
\[ \boxed{Correct Option: (B)} \] Quick Tip: If the question is about teaching courses and their validity, always look for NCTE recognition, not UGC or CBSE.

Step 1: Role of the organizing agency

In official sports tournaments, particularly at the national or international level, appointments of key officiating personnel such as umpires and referees are conducted with utmost scrutiny. These appointments are not made arbitrarily—they are coordinated with the sport's recognized governing body or federation to ensure neutrality, competence, and standardization.


Step 2: Who is a Sports Umpire?

A sports umpire is an official who enforces the rules and maintains order in the game. Since their decisions can significantly influence the outcome, their appointment involves the concerned recognized sport organization to ensure fairness and transparency.


Step 3: Analyzing the options

- (A) Commentator: Commentators are media professionals and are usually appointed by broadcasting agencies, not in coordination with sports governing bodies.
- (B) Sports Umpire: Correct. Their appointment requires consultation with recognized sport bodies to ensure impartiality and proper qualification.
- (C) Sports Event Coordinator: Usually appointed internally by the organizing committee or event management agency.
- (D) Sports Software Engineer: This is a technical role and unrelated to direct gameplay or officiating. Not appointed via sport bodies.


Step 4: Final Answer

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (B): Sports Umpire.
Quick Tip: Umpires and referees are neutral officials whose appointment is often governed jointly by event organizers and official sport federations to maintain transparency and standardization.

Step 1: Understanding the terms in List-I

- Hostile Aggression: This is impulsive, emotionally driven aggression aimed at hurting another person physically or psychologically.

- Instrumental Aggression: This is goal-oriented aggression used as a means to an end — for example, using aggressive play in sports to win.

- Intrinsic Motivation: Motivation that comes from internal enjoyment or satisfaction from the activity itself.

- Extrinsic Motivation: Motivation that stems from external rewards such as money, praise, medals, etc.


Step 2: Matching with List-II

- (A) matches with (II): Hostile aggression = causing harm

- (B) matches with (I): Instrumental aggression = used for non-aggressive goals

- (C) matches with (III): Intrinsic motivation = joy and satisfaction

- (D) matches with (IV): Extrinsic motivation = reward or praise


Step 3: Final Answer

Hence, the correct matching is:

% Option
(A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
Quick Tip: Remember: Hostile = harm, Instrumental = purpose; Intrinsic = inner joy, Extrinsic = outer reward.

Step 1: Matching List-I with List-II

Let's go through each match one by one:


- (A) Incentives and Rewards — (III): Incentives and rewards aim to offer athletes something desirable or expected. Statement III talks about giving what is valued, making this the best match.


- (B) Performance Appraisals — (IV): Appraisals are retrospective recognitions that encourage athletes to plan their actions. This directly aligns with Statement IV.


- (C) Quality Support and Facilitation — (I): This item focuses on how the quality of available support helps athletes. Statement I discusses facilitation affecting motivation, hence it is the right match.


- (D) Valence of Reward — (II): Valence refers to the attractiveness of a reward and how it drives action. Statement II discusses a motivational force driving athletes to act, which fits perfectly.


Step 2: Final Matching Set

% Option
(A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
Quick Tip: Valence of reward relates to how desirable an outcome is; incentives provide that reward, performance appraisals recognize past effort, and quality support enhances motivation through facilitation.

Statement (A):

While Australia is globally known for its enthusiasm for outdoor sports, it is not necessarily referred to as a "proud legacy" in the historical or cultural sense the way yoga is for India or martial arts for East Asia. So this statement is not technically considered part of a legacy.


Statement (B):

True. Yoga originated in ancient India and is deeply rooted in Indian spiritual and physical discipline. It is globally recognized today but remains a proud cultural and spiritual legacy of India.


Statement (C):

False. Martial arts are primarily associated with East Asian countries such as China, Japan, and Korea — not Germany. Germany is not historically known for developing or nurturing martial arts as a legacy.


Statement (D):

True. Gymnastics has historical roots in ancient civilizations, particularly in Greece and Rome, where physical training and development of the body were highly valued, especially for military readiness and cultural development.


Step 4: Final Answer

Hence, the correct statements are (B) and (D) only.
Quick Tip: When answering legacy or origin-related questions, always connect the cultural or historical origin of the practice or tradition.

Let’s evaluate each of the given options based on sociological context:



(A) Lack of infrastructure – Primarily a logistical/administrative issue, not sociological.

(B) Lack of parental support – Reflects cultural and societal values, hence sociological.

(C) Misbehavior/harassment – A major sociological concern affecting safety and morale.

(D) Male dominant social structure – Classic sociological obstacle rooted in patriarchy.


\[ \boxed{Correct Option: (D)} \] Quick Tip: Sociological obstacles are those related to behavior, cultural expectations, and social structure—not physical resources.

Step 1: Understanding the role of body balance

Body balance is a key component of motor performance. It refers to the ability to maintain the body’s position, whether in motion (dynamic balance) or at rest (static balance). It is especially critical in sports involving complex movement patterns or physical confrontation.

Step 2: Evaluating each sport

- (A) Gymnastics: Requires extreme balance for movements on beams, bars, and floor routines. Yes, balance is essential.

- (B) Chess players: Chess is a mental game and does not involve physical movement requiring body balance. No, balance is not a motor performance factor here.

- (C) Defensive position in Wrestling: Wrestlers must maintain stability while resisting takedowns or attacks. Yes, balance is crucial.

- (D) Diving: Requires control of body in air and precise entry into water. Yes, balance is essential.


Step 3: Final Answer

Therefore, body balance is an important motor performance factor in (A) Gymnastics, (C) Defensive position in Wrestling, and (D) Diving.

So the correct answer is Option 3.
Quick Tip: In sports science, motor performance factors like balance, coordination, and agility are especially important in sports requiring controlled and dynamic body movements.

Step 1: Understanding the Sprint Test Procedure

The 50-yard sprint test is used to evaluate speed and acceleration. Like any physical test, it must follow a logical, safe, and measurable process from preparation to execution.

Step 2: Sequence Analysis

- (C) Warm up: Before any physical test, warming up is essential to avoid injuries and prepare the body for performance. Hence, this step must come first.

- (A) Subjects take the starting position: Once warmed up, the subject gets into position at the starting line, ready for the sprint.

- (D) At the command Go!, timer starts their respective stop watches: The test officially begins when the command is given, and timers begin recording the performance.

- (B) Subjects cross the end line: The final step in the test is the completion of the sprint when the participant crosses the finish line.


Step 3: Final Answer

Thus, the correct sequence is: Warm up → Starting position → Go/Start Timer → Cross the end line, which matches option (3): (C), (A), (D), (B).
Quick Tip: Always start with a warm-up before a sprint test to prevent injury, followed by setup, start, and finish in sequence.

Step 1: Understanding the motivational cycle

The motivational cycle explains how motivation originates, sustains, and ends with satisfaction or reduction of drive. It includes a sequence of psychological stages that form a complete motivational loop. The typical sequence is:
1. Need and Drive – A deficiency or need arises, creating internal tension.
2. Arousal and Goal-Directed Behaviour – The drive leads to actions aimed at achieving a specific goal.
3. Achievement – The individual accomplishes the intended goal, fulfilling the need.
4. Reduction of Arousal – Satisfaction is achieved, and the drive subsides.


Step 2: Matching with options

Let’s arrange the statements according to the correct motivational cycle:
- (C) Need and Drive — the beginning of the cycle
- (D) Arousal and goal-directed behaviour — the active response to the drive
- (B) Achievement — goal is met
- (A) Reduction of arousal — tension is reduced after satisfaction


Step 3: Final Answer

The correct chronological order is: (C), (D), (B), (A)
Quick Tip: The motivational cycle begins with a need, activates behaviour to satisfy it, leads to goal achievement, and finally reduces internal arousal or tension.

Step 1: Understand the Locations of Injury from Head to Toe


- (D) Contusion on cranium — This is an injury to the head (cranium), which is the topmost part of the body.

- (C) Humerus Dislocation — The humerus is the upper arm bone, hence this injury is located at the shoulder level.

- (B) Groin muscle pull — The groin is located between the abdomen and thigh, closer to the pelvis.

- (A) Tibial Sprain — The tibia is one of the bones in the lower leg (shin area), which is near the feet.


Step 2: Arranging from Top (Head) to Bottom (Toes)

So, the logical top-to-bottom order is:
% Option
(D) Cranium → (C) Shoulder → (B) Groin → (A) Tibia


Step 3: Final Answer

Therefore, the correct arrangement is (D), (C), (B), (A).
Quick Tip: To answer anatomical order questions, mentally visualize the human body from head to toe and place each part accordingly.

Maximal explosive power is measured using a Dynamometer, which quantifies muscle strength during contraction. This device measures the force exerted during a muscular contraction, hence it is the appropriate tool for measuring maximal explosive power.
\[ \boxed{Correct Option: (D)} \] Quick Tip: A dynamometer is essential for assessing force during muscle contractions, which is necessary to evaluate explosive power.

Step 1: Understanding the question

The question asks for the percentage decrease in explosive power over a period of one month. In such scenarios, the decrease is often attributed to factors such as physical fatigue, injury, lack of proper recovery, or overtraining.

Step 2: Analyzing the options

- (A) 30%: This is the most reasonable answer based on common research or results from explosive power reduction due to fatigue, overtraining, or reduced intensity over a period of one month. This is the correct answer.

- (B) 18%: This is less likely, as significant decreases in explosive power due to overtraining and insufficient recovery are usually more substantial.

- (C) 15%: While possible, a 15% decrease is typically not the norm for explosive power over a month, unless the decrease is gradual.

- (D) 32%: This would be a more extreme decrease, which is rare unless an athlete is severely injured or experiences extreme physical distress.


Step 3: Final Answer

Thus, the correct answer is Option (A): 30%.
Quick Tip: In performance sports, explosive power can significantly decrease with inadequate recovery or overtraining. Maintaining balance between training and rest is key to preserving performance.

Step 1: Understanding the Context

This question relates to the effects of flight on the body, especially regarding fatigue or decrement (such as performance or endurance). While various factors can contribute to the decrement after a flight, it is common for duration of the flight to be a key factor influencing fatigue and recovery times.


Step 2: Analyzing the Options

- (A) Scale: This is a broad term and doesn't directly correlate with the decrement observed after flight.

- (B) Duration: The longer the flight duration, the more significant the decrement, but studies suggest that with increasing flight duration, the impact does not worsen significantly beyond a certain point. This is the correct choice.

- (C) Height: While altitude might have some effects (e.g., oxygen levels), this is not the direct cause of the decrement described here.

- (D) Condition: This term could refer to a variety of factors, but doesn't specifically relate to the change in decrement post-flight.


Step 3: Final Answer

Thus, the correct answer is (B) Duration, as it is the primary factor related to the decrease in performance post-flight.
Quick Tip: Remember: While flight duration can cause fatigue, the decrement doesn't worsen significantly after a certain point, making "duration" the key factor.

Step 1: Understanding the context

The question refers to research on how dynamic exercise during shuttle missions affects the exercise responses of individuals after they return from flight. The study focuses on the effects of exercise performed in space (in-flight dynamic exercise) and the subsequent effects on physical performance post-flight.


Step 2: Evaluating the options

- (A) 30 Athletes: This group is not related to shuttle missions, as they are typically involved in terrestrial research.
- (B) 30 shuttle crew members: This is the correct answer, as spaceflight studies are typically conducted with astronauts or shuttle crew members who undergo controlled exercise regimens to assess their physical responses post-flight.
- (C) 30 graded cyclists: Cyclists are not relevant in the context of spaceflight research on shuttle missions.
- (D) 30 ungraded cyclists: Again, cyclists are unrelated to shuttle missions and spaceflight research.


Step 3: Final Answer

Therefore, the correct answer is (B) 30 shuttle crew members.
Quick Tip: Spaceflight studies typically use shuttle crew members (astronauts) to evaluate how exercises performed in-flight affect the body after returning to Earth.

Step 1: Understanding the Context

The heart rate response to exercise can be influenced by various factors, including pre-existing fatigue, flight duration, and the type of exercise performed. In-flight dynamic exercise is specifically designed to counteract the negative effects of prolonged sitting or flight, stimulating circulation and muscle activation.


Step 2: Explanation of Dynamic Exercise

In-flight dynamic exercises, which include movements such as seated leg raises, arm rotations, or torso twists, have been found to reduce the exercise heart rate response after a flight by improving circulation and promoting muscle activity even during travel. This moderate level of exercise helps mitigate the cardiovascular strain that could arise after sitting for prolonged periods.


Step 3: Final Answer

Thus, even moderate volumes of In-flight dynamic exercise are effective in reducing the heart rate response after a flight. The correct answer is (A) In-flight dynamic exercise.
Quick Tip: In-flight exercises, particularly dynamic ones that involve movement of the legs, arms, and torso, are effective at preventing cardiovascular strain from sitting for long periods during flights.

The term Power describes the rate at which work is done, considering both the speed of movement and the force applied. Power is defined as the amount of energy transferred or converted per unit time, and it involves both force and velocity in its calculation.
\[ \boxed{Correct Option: (C)} \] Quick Tip: Power is the correct choice because it combines both the speed and the force exerted in the direction of movement.

Step 1: Understanding "Instant Power Production"

Instant power production refers to the ability to generate maximum power in a short burst of time. It is most important in sports or events that rely on explosive movements, like sprints or jumps.

Step 2: Evaluating the options

- (A) Long Distance race: For long-distance races, endurance is much more important than instant power production. The ability to maintain a steady pace over time is prioritized, and explosive power is less crucial. Correct answer.
- (B) 100m race: In a 100m sprint, instant power is crucial to gain speed quickly. This is a short-duration event requiring explosive force.
- (C) 50m swimming race: Similar to the 100m race, this is a short event, and instant power is required to start the race with maximum acceleration.
- (D) Long jump: This event requires instant power to launch off the ground. Athletes must generate maximum force in a short period to jump as far as possible.


Step 3: Final Answer

Thus, instant power production is relatively less important in the Long Distance race, making Option (A) the correct answer.
Quick Tip: For long-distance events, endurance plays a more significant role than explosive power, which is essential in short-duration, high-intensity activities.

Step 1: Understanding Muscular Power

Muscular power refers to the ability to exert maximum muscular strength in the shortest possible time. It is an important characteristic in activities that require explosive strength, such as weightlifting, sprinting, and jumping. Power is a combination of strength and speed, which means applying force quickly.


Step 2: Analyzing the Options

- (A) Muscular Force: This refers to the total amount of force generated by the muscles, but it doesn't account for the time element involved in applying that force.

- (B) Muscular Power: This is the correct answer, as it refers to the ability to produce maximum strength in the shortest amount of time, combining both force and speed.

- (C) Muscular velocity: This refers to the rate at which a body part moves, but it doesn't relate directly to strength.

- (D) Muscular speed: This refers to the ability to perform a movement quickly, but does not necessarily involve applying maximum strength.


Step 3: Final Answer

Therefore, the correct answer is Muscular Power, as it encapsulates the ability to generate maximum strength quickly.
Quick Tip: Remember: Muscular power combines strength and speed, which is critical in explosive movements like sprinting and weightlifting.

Step 1: Understanding Power in Physics

In physics, power is defined as the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred. It tells us how fast a person or machine performs work. The formula for power is:
\[ Power = \frac{Work}{Time} = \frac{Force \times Distance}{Time} \]

Thus, power relates directly to how quickly work is performed, or how fast energy is used.


Step 2: Evaluating the options

- (A) Speed: This is the correct answer, as power is related to the speed or rate of performing work.
- (B) Time: Time is a factor in the calculation of power, but it is not what power directly measures.
- (C) Weight: Weight is a force, but it is not related to power.
- (D) Capacity: Capacity refers to the ability to do work, but it is not directly measured by power.


Step 3: Final Answer

Thus, power tells one’s speed of performing work.
Quick Tip: Power tells us how quickly work is being done, i.e., it is a measure of speed in performing a task, not just the amount of work done.

Step 1: Understanding Power

Power is defined as the rate at which work is done or energy is transferred. Mathematically, power is the amount of work done per unit time, but it can also be related to force and velocity.


Step 2: The Correct Formula for Power

The formula for power in terms of force and velocity is given by:
\[ Power = Force \times Velocity \]
This is because work done (\(W\)) is equal to force (\(F\)) multiplied by distance (\(d\)), and power is the rate of doing work, i.e., \( Power = \frac{Work}{Time} = Force \times Velocity \), where velocity is the distance per unit time.


Step 3: Final Answer

Thus, the correct mathematical equation with respect to the concept of power is (D) Power = Force x Velocity.
Quick Tip: Remember: Power is the rate of doing work and can also be expressed as the product of force and velocity in the context of mechanical work.