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CUET Economics Question Paper 2024 (Set B) is available here. NTA conducted CUET 2024 Economics paper on 16 May in Shift 1A from 10 AM to 11 AM. CUET Economics Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). Candidates get 60 minutes to solve 40 MCQs out of 50 in CUET 2024 question paper for Economics.
CUET Economics Question Paper 2024 (Set B) PDF Download
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CUET Economics Question Paper with Solution
| Ques No. | Question | Answer | Solution | ||||||||||
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | A market where economic agents can freely exchange their endowments with each other. Options: 1) Market economy 2) Centrally planned economy 3) Aggregate demand-based economy 4) Aggregate supply-based economy |
(1) Market economy | A market economy allows economic agents to trade goods and services freely, with resource allocation determined by supply and demand. | ||||||||||
| 2 | Which of the following are correct statements? (A) Marginal Utility is the change in Total Utility due to consumption of one additional unit of commodity. (B) Two Indifference Curves intersect each other. (C) Marginal Utility becomes Zero at a level when Total Utility remains constant. (D) Diminishing Marginal Rate of Substitution does not affect Indifference Curve. (E) Indifference Curve slopes downwards from left to right. Options: 1) (A), (B) and (E) only 2) (A), (C) and (E) only 3) (A), (D) and (E) only 4) (B), (D) and (E) only |
(2) (A), (C) and (E) only | Marginal Utility becomes zero when Total Utility is constant. Indifference Curves cannot intersect and slope downward due to trade-offs. | ||||||||||
| 3 | Match List-I with List-II:
1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) 2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) 3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) 4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) |
(2) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) | Equilibrium occurs when plans match. Excess supply means supply exceeds demand. Inferior goods show a negative income effect. Price ceilings limit prices by law. | ||||||||||
| 4 | When Elasticity of Demand Curve is 1 at every point, this curve is known as: Options: 1) Perfectly inelastic demand curve 2) Perfectly elastic demand curve 3) Rectangular Hyperbola 4) Greater than unitary demand curve |
(3) Rectangular Hyperbola | A Rectangular Hyperbola represents constant unitary elasticity, where changes in price and quantity maintain constant total revenue. | ||||||||||
| 5 | According to the Theory of Consumer Behaviour, inequality p1x1 + p2x2 ≤ M is called the Consumer's: Options: 1) Budget 2) Budget Set 3) Budget Constraint 4) Budget Behaviour |
(3) Budget Constraint | The Budget Constraint represents the total expenditure limited by income, showing maximum combinations of goods affordable. | ||||||||||
| 6 | Choose the correct statements from the following: (A) Adam Smith is termed as Father of Modern Economics. (B) J.M. Keynes gave the Theory of Income, Output, and Employment. (C) Four Sector Model = C + I + G + (X–M). (D) Store of value is a primary function of money. Options: 1) (A), (B) and (D) only 2) (A), (B) and (C) only 3) (A), (B), (C) and (D) 4) (B), (C) and (D) only |
(2) (A), (B) and (C) only | Adam Smith is the Father of Modern Economics. Keynes introduced the Theory of Income and Employment. Four Sector Model includes consumption, investment, government spending, and net exports. Store of value is a secondary, not primary, function of money. | ||||||||||
| 7 | Rearrange the given statements in proper chronological sequence: (A) General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money by Keynes. (B) Mahalanobis was made a fellow of Britain’s Royal Society. (C) Wealth of Nations by Adam Smith. (D) The Economic Consequences of the Peace by Keynes. Options: 1) (C), (D), (A), (B) 2) (A), (B), (C), (D) 3) (A), (C), (B), (D) 4) (D), (A), (C), (B) |
(1) (C), (D), (A), (B) | Chronological order: Adam Smith’s *Wealth of Nations* (1776), Keynes’s *Economic Consequences of the Peace* (1919), Keynes’s *General Theory* (1936), and Mahalanobis’s fellowship (1945). | ||||||||||
| 8 | If there is no government and no foreign trade, then: Options: 1) G = T = M = X > 1 2) G = T = M = X = 1 3) G = T = M = X = 0 4) G = T = M = X < 1 |
(3) G = T = M = X = 0 | In the absence of government and foreign trade, there are no government spending (G), taxation (T), imports (M), or exports (X), hence all equal zero. | ||||||||||
| 9 | The value of Nominal GDP is $1100 and Real GDP is $1000. Find the value of GDP deflator: Options: 1) 0.9 2) 1.1 3) 1 4) 0.8 |
(2) 1.1 | GDP Deflator = Nominal GDP / Real GDP = 1100 / 1000 = 1.1, indicating a 10% price level increase. | ||||||||||
| 10 | Identify the correct statements: (A) Stocks are defined over a period of time. (B) Flows are defined over a period of time. (C) Flows are defined at a particular point of time. (D) Stocks are defined at a particular point of time. (E) GVA at factor costs + Indirect Taxes − Subsidies = GVA at market prices. Options: 1) (A), (C) and (E) only 2) (B), (C) and (D) only 3) (B), (D) and (E) only 4) (C), (D) and (E) only |
(3) (B), (D) and (E) only | Flows are measured over time, stocks at a specific point. GVA at market prices = GVA at factor costs + Indirect Taxes − Subsidies. | ||||||||||
| 11 | If the supply of final goods is assumed to be infinitely elastic at constant price over a short period of time, Aggregate output is determined solely by the value of Aggregate demand. This is called: Options: 1) Aggregate supply 2) Aggregate demand 3) Effective demand 4) Perfectly inelastic demand |
(3) Effective demand | Effective demand principle states that when supply is perfectly elastic, output is solely determined by aggregate demand in the short run. | ||||||||||
| 12 | Nominal Interest Rate = Options: 1) Real Interest Rate × Inflation Rate 2) Real Interest Rate − Inflation Rate 3) Real Interest Rate / Inflation Rate 4) Real Interest Rate + Inflation Rate |
(4) Real Interest Rate + Inflation Rate | According to the Fisher Equation, the nominal interest rate is the sum of the real interest rate and the inflation rate. | ||||||||||
| 13 | Value of MPS (Marginal Propensity to Save) is increased from 0.4 to 0.5. What would be the impact on Multiplier? Options: 1) The size of the multiplier would be increased. 2) The size of the multiplier would remain the same. 3) Value of multiplier is undetermined with the given information. 4) The size of the multiplier would be decreased. |
(4) The size of the multiplier would be decreased | Multiplier (k) = 1 / MPS. If MPS increases, the multiplier decreases. With MPS increasing from 0.4 to 0.5, the multiplier reduces from 2.5 to 2. | ||||||||||
| 14 | Paradox of Thrift means: Options: 1) If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they save, the total value of investment in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged. 2) If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they spend, the total value of savings in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged. 3) If all the people of the economy decrease the proportion of income they save, the total value of savings in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged. 4) If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they save, the total value of savings in the economy will not increase, it will either decline or remain unchanged. |
(4) | The Paradox of Thrift occurs when an increase in savings reduces consumption, leading to a fall in aggregate demand, income, and overall savings. | ||||||||||
| 15 | depicts what has actually happened: Options: 1) Ex-Ante 2) Ex-Post 3) Constant 4) Variable |
(2) Ex-Post | Ex-Post refers to actual outcomes, in contrast to Ex-Ante, which refers to forecasts or expected values. | ||||||||||
| 16 | If the value of Investment Multiplier is 5 and the increased income is 800 crore in an economy, then find the value of change in the investment in the economy: Options: 1) 4000 crore 2) 120 crore 3) 400 crore 4) 160 crore |
(4) 160 crore | The multiplier formula is: k = ΔY / ΔI. Substituting k = 5 and ΔY = 800 crore, we get ΔI = 800 / 5 = 160 crore. | ||||||||||
| 17 | Which of the following statements are true? (A) Quantitative tools control the extent of money supply by changing the CRR. (B) There are two types of open market operations – outright and upright. (C) A fall in the bank rate can decrease the money supply. (D) Selling of a bond by RBI leads to reduction in quantity of reserves. (E) The RBI can influence money supply by changing the rate at which it gives loan to the commercial banks. Options: 1) (A), (C) and (D) only 2) (A), (B) and (D) only 3) (B), (D) and (E) only 4) (A), (D) and (E) only |
(4) (A), (D) and (E) only | - (A): Correct, as CRR changes affect money supply. - (D): Correct, as selling bonds absorbs liquidity. - (E): Correct, as repo rate changes impact lending. - (B): Incorrect, as open market operations involve outright and repo/reverse repo. - (C): Incorrect, as a fall in bank rate increases money supply. |
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| 18 | Match List-I with List-II: List-I (A) Bank Rate (B) Marginal Standing Facility (C) Repo Rate (D) Reverse Repo Rate List-II (I) Securities are pledged in order to repurchase (II) Minimum rate at which funds are provided for long term (III) Also known as Penal Interest Rate (IV) Central Bank borrows funds from commercial banks Options: 1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) 2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) 3) (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) 4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) |
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) | - (A): Bank Rate = Long-term funding rate (II). - (B): Marginal Standing Facility = Penal rate (III). - (C): Repo Rate = Securities pledged (I). - (D): Reverse Repo Rate = Central bank borrows (IV). |
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| 19 | Which of the following is not a function of Central Bank? Options: 1) It controls the money supply in the economy through different rates. 2) It acts as a banker to the government. 3) It accepts deposits and gives loans to people. 4) It issues the currency of the country. |
(3) | The Central Bank focuses on monetary policy and managing the economy, while commercial banks handle deposits and loans for individuals. | ||||||||||
| 20 | Article 112 deals with: Options: 1) Consolidated Fund of India 2) Public Account 3) Union Budget 4) Contingency Fund |
(3) Union Budget | Article 112 of the Indian Constitution relates to the Union Budget, an annual financial statement of government receipts and expenditures. | ||||||||||
| 21 | All those elements which create liability and decrease the assets of the government are known as: Options: 1) Capital Receipts 2) Capital Payments 3) Revenue Receipts 4) Revenue Payments |
(1) Capital Receipts | Capital Receipts include items like borrowings or sale of assets that create liabilities or reduce the government's net worth. | ||||||||||
| 22 | Arrange the following elements in correct chronological sequence (earliest to latest): (A) Smithsonian Agreement (B) Bretton Woods Conference (C) Establishment of WTO (D) Gold Standard Options: 1) (A), (B), (C), (D) 2) (D), (B), (A), (C) 3) (D), (A), (B), (C) 4) (C), (B), (D), (A) |
(2) (D), (B), (A), (C) | Chronology: - (D) Gold Standard: Pre-1930s. - (B) Bretton Woods: 1944. - (A) Smithsonian Agreement: 1971. - (C) WTO: 1995. |
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| 23 | Under flexible exchange rate, when the price of domestic currency in terms of foreign currency increases, it is called: Options: 1) Depreciation of domestic currency 2) Appreciation of domestic currency 3) Devaluation of domestic currency 4) Revaluation of domestic currency |
(2) Appreciation of domestic currency | Under flexible exchange rates, an increase in the domestic currency's value relative to a foreign currency is called appreciation. | ||||||||||
| 24 | Match List-I with List-II: List-I (A) Pegged exchange rate system (B) Managed floating (C) Bretton Woods Conference (D) Third element in BOP List-II (I) Setting up of IMF and World Bank (II) Fixed exchange rate system (III) Dirty floating (IV) Error and Omission Account Options: 1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) 2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) 3) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) 4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) |
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) | - (A): Pegged exchange rate = Fixed system. - (B): Managed floating = Dirty floating. - (C): Bretton Woods = IMF/World Bank. - (D): Third element = Errors and Omissions. |
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| 25 | Casualization of workforce would result in: Options: 1) Decrease in the vulnerability of the workforce. 2) Increase in the vulnerability of the workforce. 3) Increase in the number of regular workers. 4) Income and employment stability. |
(2) Increase in the vulnerability of the workforce | Casualization refers to the rise in temporary or informal jobs, leading to greater workforce vulnerability due to lack of job security and benefits. | ||||||||||
| 26 | Choose the correct chronological sequence in ascending order (earliest to latest): (A) Establishment of NABARD (B) FRBMA (Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act) (C) Third Five Year Plan (D) Nationalization of RBI Options: 1) (A), (B), (C), (D) 2) (A), (C), (B), (D) 3) (D), (A), (B), (C) 4) (D), (C), (A), (B) |
(4) (D), (C), (A), (B) | Chronological order: (D) Nationalization of RBI: 1949 → (C) Third Five Year Plan: 1961-1966 → (A) NABARD: 1982 → (B) FRBMA: 2003. | ||||||||||
| 27 | Resource extraction not exceeding the regeneration rate of resources and wastes within environmental capacity implies: Options: 1) Absorptive capacity 2) Carrying capacity 3) Subsistence capacity 4) Exhaustive capacity |
(2) Carrying capacity | Carrying capacity ensures sustainable use of resources and waste assimilation within environmental limits. | ||||||||||
| 28 | Right to Education Act (2009) makes free education a Fundamental Right for children aged: Options: 1) 4–10 2) 6–12 3) 6–14 4) 8–15 |
(3) 6–14 | The RTE Act ensures free and compulsory education for children aged 6–14 years as a Fundamental Right under Article 21A. | ||||||||||
| 29 | Arrange the sources of electricity generation in India in descending order of total capacity: (A) Nuclear (B) Thermal (C) New and Renewable Energy (D) Hydro Options: 1) (A), (B), (C), (D) 2) (A), (C), (B), (D) 3) (B), (C), (D), (A) 4) (B), (D), (C), (A) |
(4) (B), (D), (C), (A) | Thermal power contributes the most, followed by hydro, renewable energy, and nuclear power. | ||||||||||
| 30 | Arrange the following in correct sequence: (A) Competition Act (B) FEMA (C) FERA (D) MRTP Options: 1) (A), (B), (C), (D) 2) (A), (C), (B), (D) 3) (D), (C), (B), (A) 4) (C), (B), (D), (A) |
(3) (D), (C), (B), (A) | Chronology: MRTP (1969) → FERA (1973) → FEMA (1999) → Competition Act (2002). | ||||||||||
| 31 | The Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign was initiated in: Options: 1) 1948 2) 1938 3) 1958 4) 1942 |
(3) 1958 | The GLF was a social and economic campaign initiated by Mao Zedong to rapidly industrialize China in 1958. | ||||||||||
| 32 | Match List-I with List-II: (A) Great Leap Forward - (I) Protecting the future generation (B) Mao Zedong - (II) Aimed at industrializing the country (C) Brundtland Commission - (III) Introduced the Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution (D) Our Common Future - (IV) Seminal report explaining sustainable development Options: 1) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) 2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) 3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) 4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) |
(2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV) | GLF aimed at industrialization (II); Mao introduced the Cultural Revolution (III); Brundtland focused on future generations (I); "Our Common Future" explained sustainability (IV). | ||||||||||
| 33 | The second phase of the Green Revolution is termed from: Options: 1) Mid 1960s to mid 1970s 2) Mid 1970s to mid 1980s 3) Mid 1950s to mid 1960s 4) Mid 1980s to mid 1990s |
(2) Mid 1970s to mid 1980s | The second phase focused on technological advancements and diversification in agriculture during the mid-1970s to mid-1980s. | ||||||||||
| 34 | During the 1980s, the growth rate in Pakistan improved on account of: Options: 1) Institutionalized process of technical change 2) A good harvest 3) Sustainable export of manufactured goods 4) High foreign direct investment inflow |
(2) A good harvest | Agricultural performance improved due to favorable weather and a good harvest, boosting growth in Pakistan during the 1980s. | ||||||||||
| 35 | When there is an unexpected rise in sales: Options: 1) Aggregate demand would decline. 2) There will be unplanned accumulation of inventories. 3) There will be unplanned decumulation of inventories. 4) Normal profit would be lower. |
(3) There will be unplanned decumulation of inventories | With unexpected sales increases, inventory levels fall faster than planned, leading to unplanned decumulation. | ||||||||||
| 36 | During festive season, the currency deposit ratio: Options: 1) Decreases 2) Increases 3) Has no impact 4) First decreases, then increases |
(2) Increases | People withdraw more cash for spending during festive seasons, raising the currency deposit ratio. | ||||||||||
| 37 | The European Monetary Union (EMU) was created in: Options: 1) 1996 2) 1994 3) 1999 4) 2002 |
(3) 1999 | The EMU introduced the euro as a common currency for non-cash transactions in 1999; euro notes and coins followed in 2002. | ||||||||||
| 38 | Identify the correct statement in the context of Circular Flow of Income in a two-sector economy: Options: 1) Households receive factor services from firms. 2) Households invest while firms save. 3) Firms produce goods and services. 4) Households supply factor services to the Government. |
(3) Firms produce goods and services | In a two-sector economy (households and firms), households supply factors of production while firms produce goods and services. | ||||||||||
| 39 | Identify the correct set of statements: (A) Ex Ante Saving represents what is actually planned to save. (B) Ex Post Saving represents what is actually planned to save. (C) Ex Post Saving depicts what has actually happened. (D) Ex Ante Post Saving represents what is actually saved. Options: 1) (A) and (D) only 2) (A) and (C) only 3) (B) and (D) only 4) (C) and (D) only |
(2) (A) and (C) only | Ex Ante refers to planned behavior, while Ex Post represents actual outcomes. The term "Ex Ante Post Saving" is invalid. | ||||||||||
| 40 | Match List-I with List-II: (A) Annual Financial Statement - (I) Creates liabilities or reduces financial assets. (B) Capital Receipts - (II) Trade surplus. (C) Capital Payment - (III) Main budget document. (D) Export > Import - (IV) Creates financial assets or reduces liabilities. Options: 1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) 2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) 3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) 4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) |
(2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II) | Annual Financial Statement is the main budget document; Capital Receipts create liabilities; Capital Payments create assets; Export > Import indicates a trade surplus. | ||||||||||
| 41 | How is the civic authority getting benefitted due to biocomposting? Options: 1) They have to dispose of an increased quantity of waste. 2) They don’t have to dispose of any waste. 3) Civic authority has no role in waste management. 4) They have to dispose of a reduced quantity of waste. |
(4) They have to dispose of a reduced quantity of waste | Biocomposting reduces the amount of waste that needs disposal, easing the burden on civic authorities. | ||||||||||
| 42 | Choose the correct statement concerned with the passage: Options: 1) Earthworms take equal time to convert organic matter into compost as the normal composting process. 2) Earthworms take more time to convert organic matter into compost compared to the normal composting process. 3) Earthworms take less time to convert organic matter into compost compared to the normal composting process. 4) Comparison between earthworm-based composting and normal composting cannot be made. |
(3) Earthworms take less time to convert organic matter into compost compared to the normal composting process | The passage states that earthworms accelerate composting compared to the normal process. | ||||||||||
| 43 | Water bodies, including groundwater systems, have suffered due to: Options: 1) Biocomposting 2) Chemical contamination and increased demand for irrigation 3) Organic farming 4) Increased fertility of land |
(2) Chemical contamination and increased demand for irrigation | The extensive use of chemical fertilizers and increased irrigation demand have harmed water systems. | ||||||||||
| 44 | In certain parts of the country, cattle are maintained only because they: Options: 1) Produce milk to increase farmers' income 2) Produce dung which is an important fertilizer and soil conditioner 3) Work as insect repellents 4) Are a symbol of traditional ethics and values |
(2) Produce dung which is an important fertilizer and soil conditioner | The passage highlights that cattle are kept primarily for dung production to enrich soil fertility. | ||||||||||
| 45 | What should be the suitable title for the above passage? Options: 1) Biocomposting 2) Biopest Control 3) Traditional Knowledge and Practice 4) Uses of Chemical Fertilizers |
(1) Biocomposting | The passage primarily discusses biocomposting and its benefits for waste management and soil health. | ||||||||||
| 46 | Before the British rule, India was well known for which manufacturing industries’ products? Options: 1) Cotton and Silk or Khadi textiles 2) Cotton and Engineering products 3) Cotton and Silk textiles, metal, and precious stones, etc. 4) Engineering goods and precious metals |
(3) Cotton and Silk textiles, metal, and precious stones, etc. | The passage emphasizes India's fame for its high-quality textiles, metals, and precious stone craftsmanship before colonization. | ||||||||||
| 47 | What kind of interests was the colonial government concerned with in the economic policy for Indian industries? Options: 1) To promote the handicraft industries of India 2) Promote and protect small-scale industries of India 3) Protect and promote the economic interests of Indian industry along with their home country 4) Provide protection and promotion of the economic interests of their home country |
(4) Provide protection and promotion of the economic interests of their home country | The passage clearly states that the colonial government's policies prioritized Britain's economic interests. | ||||||||||
| 48 | Choose the economists who estimated India’s National Income and Per Capita Income: Options: 1) Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Bernier, V.K.R.V. Rao, and R.C. Desai 2) Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Findlay Shirras, V.K.R.V. Rao, and R.C. Desai 3) Dadabhai Naoroji, Jagdish Bhagwati, V.K.R.V. Rao, and R.C. Desai 4) Dadabhai Naoroji, Findlay Shirras, and V.K.R.V. Rao |
(2) Dadabhai Naoroji, William Digby, Findlay Shirras, V.K.R.V. Rao, and R.C. Desai | These economists made notable efforts to estimate India's national and per capita income during the colonial era. | ||||||||||
| 49 | What was the country’s growth of aggregate real output during the first half of the 20th century? Options: 1) Less than 2% with 1% growth in per capita output per year. 2) Less than 2% with 1.5% growth in per capita output per year. 3) Less than 2.5% with 0.5% growth in per capita output per year. 4) Less than 2% with 0.5% growth in per capita output per year. |
(4) Less than 2% with 0.5% growth in per capita output per year | The passage mentions that India's aggregate real output grew less than 2%, and per capita output growth was meager at 0.5% annually during the early 20th century. | ||||||||||
| 50 | According to the passage, which of the following statements is true about Indian industries’ products? Options: 1) Inferior quality and cheap in the worldwide market. 2) Promoted by the colonial government and competed globally. 3) Enjoyed worldwide markets due to quality and craftsmanship. 4) Dependent on imported raw materials, boosting exports. |
(3) Enjoyed worldwide markets due to quality and craftsmanship | The passage highlights that Indian handicrafts were globally renowned for their superior material quality and high craftsmanship before colonization. |
CUET Questions
1. If \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 5 & 1 \\ -2 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \) and \( B^T = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 10 \\ -2 & -1 \end{bmatrix} \), then the matrix \( AB \) is:
If \( A = \begin{bmatrix} 5 & 1 \\ -2 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \) and \( B^T = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 10 \\ -2 & -1 \end{bmatrix} \), then the matrix \( AB \) is:
- \( \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 10 \\ -1 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \)
- \( \begin{bmatrix} 15 & -11 \\ -2 & 4 \end{bmatrix} \)
- \( \begin{bmatrix} 3 & 49 \\ -2 & -20 \end{bmatrix} \)
- \( \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 9 \\ -2 & -20 \end{bmatrix} \)
2. Formaldehyde undergoes Cannizzaro reaction because
(A) It has alpha-hydrogen atom.
(B) It does not have alpha-hydrogen atom.
(C) It does not undergo self-oxidation and reduction on heating with concentrated alkali.
(D) It undergoes self-oxidation and reduction on heating with concentrated alkali.
Formaldehyde undergoes Cannizzaro reaction because
(A) It has alpha-hydrogen atom.
(B) It does not have alpha-hydrogen atom.
(C) It does not undergo self-oxidation and reduction on heating with concentrated alkali.
(D) It undergoes self-oxidation and reduction on heating with concentrated alkali.
(A) It has alpha-hydrogen atom.
(B) It does not have alpha-hydrogen atom.
(C) It does not undergo self-oxidation and reduction on heating with concentrated alkali.
(D) It undergoes self-oxidation and reduction on heating with concentrated alkali.
- (A) It has alpha-hydrogen atom
- (B) It does not have alpha-hydrogen atom
- (C) It does not undergo self-oxidation and reduction on heating with concentrated alkali
- (D) It undergoes self-oxidation and reduction on heating with concentrated alkali
3. The correct solution of \(-22 < 8x - 6 \leq 26\) is the interval:
The correct solution of \(-22 < 8x - 6 \leq 26\) is the interval:
- \([-2, 4]\)
- \((-2, 4]\)
- \((-2, 4)\)
- \([-2, 4)\)
4. In a 600 m race, the ratio of the speeds of two participants A and B is 4:5. If A has a head start of 200 m, then the distance by which A wins is:
In a 600 m race, the ratio of the speeds of two participants A and B is 4:5. If A has a head start of 200 m, then the distance by which A wins is:
- 500 m
- 200 m
- 100 m
- 120 m
5. David can row a boat in still water at the rate of 5 km/hr. He rowed in a river downstream to meet his friend. After returning back, he observed that the duration of the upstream journey was three times that of the downstream journey. The speed of the stream was:
David can row a boat in still water at the rate of 5 km/hr. He rowed in a river downstream to meet his friend. After returning back, he observed that the duration of the upstream journey was three times that of the downstream journey. The speed of the stream was:
- 2 km/hr
- 2.5 km/hr
- 3 km/hr
- 3.5 km/hr
6. Vibhuti bought a car worth ₹10,25,000 and made a down payment of ₹4,00,000. The balance is to be paid in 3 years by equal monthly installments at an interest rate of 12% p.a. The EMI that Vibhuti has to pay for the car is:
(Use \( (1.01)^{-36} = 0.7 \))
Vibhuti bought a car worth ₹10,25,000 and made a down payment of ₹4,00,000. The balance is to be paid in 3 years by equal monthly installments at an interest rate of 12% p.a. The EMI that Vibhuti has to pay for the car is:
(Use \( (1.01)^{-36} = 0.7 \))
(Use \( (1.01)^{-36} = 0.7 \))
- ₹20,700.85
- ₹27,058.87
- ₹20,833.33
- ₹25,708.89
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