CBSE Class 12 Economics Set 1 - (58/4/1) Question Paper 2026 is available for download here. CBSE conducted the Class 12 Economics exam on March 18, 2026, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Economics theory paper is of 80 marks, and the internal assessment is of 20 marks.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2026 (All Subjects)

The question paper has 34 questions, all compulsory, for 80 marks:

  • Section A is Macro Economics and Section B is Indian Economic Development
  • 20 multiple choice questions of 1 mark each
  • 4 Short Answer Type-I questions of 3 marks each (60 to 80 words)
  • 6 Short Answer Type-II questions of 4 marks each (80 to 100 words)
  • 4 Long Answer type questions of 6 marks each (100 to 150 words)
  • There is no overall choice, but internal choice is given in a few questions

CBSE Class 12 Economics Set 1 - (58/4/1) Question Paper 2026 with Solution PDF

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CBSE Class 12 Economics 2026 Set 1 (58/4/1) Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Assuming for an imaginary economy, consumption at zero level of income and break-even level of income is ₹ 50 and ₹ 200 respectively.

Choose the correct value of Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC), from the following :

  • (A) 0.8
  • (B) 0.9
  • (C) 0.75
  • (D) 0.85

Question 2:

Read the following statements carefully :

Statement I : The measurement of value makes it easier to compare the relative worth of two commodities.

Statement II : Money facilitates the act of sale and purchase of goods and services.

In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following :

  • (A) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
  • (B) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
  • (C) Both Statements I and II are true.
  • (D) Both Statements I and II are false.

Question 3:

To arrive at the value of National Income (NNPFC), ___________ must be added to ___________ at factor cost.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)

  • (A) Depreciation, Net Domestic Product
  • (B) Depreciation, Gross Domestic Product
  • (C) Net Factor Income from Abroad, Net Domestic Product
  • (D) Net Indirect Taxes, Gross Domestic Product

Question 4:

Under ___________ exchange rate system, the competent authority may devalue currency to increase exports.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) Fixed
  • (B) Floating
  • (C) Managed
  • (D) Fixed floating

Question 5:

Investment is defined as addition to the ___________ .

(i) Stock of physical capital

(ii) Changes in the inventory

(iii) Consumption

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) Only (i)
  • (B) (i) and (ii)
  • (C) (i) and (iii)
  • (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 6:

Suppose, a banking system received primary deposits of ₹ 1,000 and as a result commercial banks created credit worth ₹ 5,000.

The value of Reserve Ratio in the given situation would be ___________ percent.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 25
  • (D) 40

Question 7:

Study the given image carefully :

The line LK represents _________ curve.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) Consumption
  • (B) Aggregate Supply
  • (C) Aggregate Demand
  • (D) Investment

Question 8:

Read the following statements : Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below :

Assertion (A) : Government can control the situation of deficient demand through its taxation policy.

Reason (R) : Reduction in tax rates by the government leads to increase in the disposable income of the people.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 9:

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) performs the function of Banker to the Banks by acting as a :

(i) Clearing House

(ii) Custodian of Cash Reserves

(iii) Lender to the Government

(iv) Periodic inspection of Banks

  • (A) (i) and (ii)
  • (B) (ii) and (iii)
  • (C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
  • (D) (i) and (iv)

Question 10:

Purchase of a property by an Indian resident abroad can be recorded on the ___________ side of ___________ account of Balance of Payments.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)

  • (A) Credit, Capital
  • (B) Credit, Current
  • (C) Debit, Current
  • (D) Debit, Capital

Question 11(a):

On the basis of the given data, estimate the value of Gross Domestic Product at Factor Cost (GDPFC) :

S. No.ItemsAmount (in ₹ crore)
(i)Private final consumption expenditure800
(ii)Government final consumption expenditure700
(iii)Net imports200
(iv)Gross public investment100
(v)Inventory investment50
(vi)Gross residential construction investment300
(vii)Net indirect taxes70
(viii)Gross business fixed investment130
(ix)Consumption of fixed capital20
(x)Interest150
(xi)Net factor income paid to abroad100


Question 11(b) (OR):

Explain any two precautions to be kept in mind while estimating National Income by the Income method.


Question 12(a):

Define Money Supply.


Question 12(b):

Explain any one component of money supply.


Question 13(a):

Define Accommodating Items under Balance of Payments (BoP).


Question 13(b):

“Economic transactions that are recorded in the current account can be classified in two parts — merchandise and invisibles. Net inflows from both the transactions are referred to as Trade Surplus.”

Do you agree with the given statement ? Give valid arguments in support of your answer.


Question 14(a):

Explain the adjustment mechanism, if in an economy, ex-ante Aggregate Demand (AD) is more than ex-ante Aggregate Supply (AS).


Question 14(b) (OR):

Explain the process of working of Investment Multiplier, for a hypothetical economy with Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) as 0.8 and Incremental Investment as ₹ 2,000 crore.


Comprehension:

Read the following passage carefully :

“ The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor announced a 50 basis points reduction in the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) to 4% during the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) address on December

Read More 6. The Governor noted that this move reflects a balanced approach towards managing liquidity while ensuring economic stability.”

Based on the above passage and common understanding, answer the following questions :


Question 15(i):

Explain the rationale and the likely impact of the decision taken by the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of Reserve Bank of India (RBI).


Question 15(ii):

Define Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR).


Question 16(a)(i):

“The Credit Linked Subsidy Scheme (CLSS) is a key component of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY), aimed at providing affordable housing for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS), Lower-income Groups (LIG), and Middle-income Groups (MIG) in India.”

Identify and explain the government budget objective highlighted in the above statement.


Question 16(a)(ii):

Differentiate between the two types of tax revenue sources of the government.


Question 16(b)(i) (OR):

Medha, an economics student, was studying about the expenditure on defence incurred by the government in the form of acquiring new platforms (jets, submarines etc.), and salaries and pensions of armed forces personnel.

She classified both the expenditures as capital expenditure.

Do you agree with Medha’s views ? Give valid explanation in support of your answer.


Question 16(b)(ii) (OR):

If, for an economy, Primary Deficit is ₹ 1,000 crore and interest payments are 20% of total borrowings of the government, then calculate the value of fiscal deficit.


Comprehension:

Read the following passage carefully :

The domestic product measures the value of all goods and services arising out of economic activity within a country over a specific period, while National Income is the sum total of income earned by all factors of production as a result of the economic activities during a period of time.

National Income includes only those incomes which are derived directly from the current production of goods and services, which are called Factor Incomes.

When National Income is measured at current prices over a number of years, the changes in National Income would

Read More include the effect of the changes in production along with the changes in prices. This estimate compared over the period would not be an accurate measure of the overall real increase in production of the country or the economic welfare of the people of the economy.

Therefore, it would be necessary to eliminate the effect of prices, in other words, to recompute the whole series at given prices of one particular base year. National Income, thus computed, is termed as National Income at constant prices.

On the basis of the above passage and common understanding, answer the following questions :


Question 17(i):

Differentiate between Domestic Product and National Product.


Question 17(ii):

‘National Income measured at constant prices is a better measure of the overall real increase in production of the country.’

Justify the given statement with valid arguments.


Question 18:

Read the following statements carefully :

Statement I : Worker Population Ratio is used for analyzing the overall employment situation of a country.

Statement II : A garment company has hired two workers on daily wage basis. Such a situation is considered as a formal sector employment.

In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following :

  • (A) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
  • (B) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
  • (C) Both Statements I and II are true.
  • (D) Both Statements I and II are false.

Question 19:

Identify the incorrect statement from the following.

  • (A) Expansion of rural credit has helped the Indian farmers to increase their production and productivity.
  • (B) The expansion and promotion of the rural banking sector has taken a backseat after the economic reforms.
  • (C) It is an accepted fact that if, farmers sell their produce directly to consumers, their profitability increases.
  • (D) Farmers who have the required information on prevailing prices often sell their produce at low prices.

Question 20:

Read the following statements : Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below :

Assertion (A) : Education is one of the important factors for economic growth of a country.

Reason (R) : A healthy person could provide uninterrupted labour supply for a longer period of time.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 21:

Which of the following is not an advantage of Green Revolution ?

  • (A) Increased marketed surplus
  • (B) Increase in prices of food grains
  • (C) Self-sufficiency in food grains
  • (D) Creation of buffer stock

Question 22:

Based on the given image, choose the incorrect option :

  • (A) Information related to employment is collected by Union Ministry of Labour.
  • (B) International Labour Organization (ILO) has initiated modernization of this enterprise and the provision of social security measures to workers.
  • (C) Highly vulnerable to uncertainties of the market.
  • (D) An enterprise hires 10 or less than 10 workers.

Question 23:

Read the following statements carefully :

Statement I : Diversification in agriculture relates to change in cropping pattern and shift in workforce to allied activities.

Statement II : Agricultural marketing is a process that involves the assembling, storage, processing, transportation, packaging, grading and distribution of agro-products.

In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following :

  • (A) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
  • (B) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
  • (C) Both Statements I and II are true.
  • (D) Both Statements I and II are false.

Question 24:

Human Development is based on the idea that ___________ and ___________ are integral to human wellbeing.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)

  • (A) Education, Wealth
  • (B) Health, Wealth
  • (C) Education, Health
  • (D) Health, Housing

Question 25:

Identify the correct option with reference to the following statement :

“Farmers and industrial units were required to transact fixed quantities of raw materials and finished goods on the basis of prices fixed by the government, while the rest were purchased and sold at market price.”

  • (A) Great Leap Forward
  • (B) Dual Pricing Policy
  • (C) Special Economic Zones (SEZs)
  • (D) Commune System

Question 26:

__________ was the successor organisation to General Agreement on Trade and Tariff (GATT).

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
  • (B) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  • (C) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
  • (D) World Trade Organisation (WTO)

Question 27:

Read the following statements carefully :

Statement I : Population explosion, affluent consumption and production have placed a huge stress on the environment.

Statement II : Carrying capacity is the largest size of a density-dependent population for which the population growth rate is zero.

In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following :

  • (A) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
  • (B) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
  • (C) Both Statements I and II are true.
  • (D) Both Statements I and II are false.

Question 28:

Define Liberty Indicator and mention its significance.


Question 29(a):

Anaya and Rohan owned separate farms. Anaya focused on learning modern farming techniques, training workers in crop rotation, soil management, and pest control.

On the other hand, Rohan invested in advanced machinery, irrigation systems, HYV seeds.

“Both Anaya and Rohan invested in human capital.”

Do you agree with the given statement ? Give valid argument in support of your answer.


Question 29(b) (OR):

“Expenditure on preventive medicine, curative and social medicine helps in building human capital and economic development.”

Do you agree with the given statement ? Give valid argument in support of your answer.


Question 30(a):

“Infrastructural upliftment of India was one of the key features of the British rule in India.”

State and discuss any two such developments, in the light of the given statement, with self-serving interests of the British.


Question 30(b) (OR):

“In the post-independence era, India adopted a protective tariff policy.”

Do you agree with the given statement ? Justify your answer with any two valid arguments.


Question 31:

Elaborate, how the efforts of various governments in India have helped in generation of employment, directly or indirectly, in the nation.


Question 32:

On the basis of the given data, outline and compare the share of Employment and Gross Value Added (GVA) of the sector that emerges to be a prospective employer in India and China.

Sectoral Share of Employment and GDP (%) in 2021

SectorContribution of GVADistribution of Workforce
IndiaChinaPakistanIndiaChinaPakistan
Agriculture19824462337
Industry293920253225
Services525356294538
Total100100100100100100


Question 33(a)(i):

“As per a few scholars, fertilizer subsidies should now be phased out, as they have served their purpose.”

Do you agree with the given statement ? Justify your answer with valid arguments.


Question 33(a)(ii):

State any two ways by which the government can execute the step of disinvestment.


Question 33(b)(i) (OR):

“During the 1991 economic reforms, the Government undertook a range of financial sector reforms which made a significant impact in the years to follow.”

Justify the given statement with valid arguments.


Question 33(b)(ii) (OR):

State the name of any one Maharatna and any one Navratna company.


Comprehension:

Read the following text carefully :

According to the 2021 World Air Quality Report, India is home to 63 of the 100 most polluted cities. The study also found that PM 2.5 concentration (tiny particles in the air that are 2.5 micrometres or smaller in length) in 48% of the country’s cities are more than 10 times higher than the WHO’s air quality guidelines level. Undoubtedly, this has made air pollution as one of the most pressing environmental issues in India.

Vehicular emission, industrial waste, cooking smoke, the construction sector, crop burning and power generation are among the biggest sources of air pollution in India. The country’s

Read More dependence on coal, oil and gas due to rampant electrification makes it the world’s the largest polluter, contributing over 2.65 billion metric tonnes of carbon to the atmosphere every year.

In 2021, India was among the world’s most polluted countries, second only to Bangladesh. The annual average PM 2.5 level in India was about 58.1 µg/m3 in 2021.

Scientists have linked persistent exposure to PM 2.5 to many long-term health issues including heart and lung disease, as well as 7.5 million premature deaths each year.

On the basis of the above passage and common understanding, answer the following questions :


Question 34(a):

State any four sources of air pollution in India.


Question 34(b):

Discuss briefly the adverse impacts of rising levels of PM 2.5 particles in the air.


Question 34(c):

State the full form of CPCB.

CBSE Class 12 Economics Question Paper Pattern and Marking Scheme

The CBSE Class 12 Economics 2026 theory paper is of 80 marks and has 34 questions, all compulsory, in two sections: Section A (Macro Economics) and Section B (Indian Economic Development). There is no overall choice, but an internal choice (OR) is given in a few questions. The tables below give the paper pattern and the marking rules from the official CBSE question paper and marking scheme.

CBSE Class 12 Economics Question Paper Pattern 2026

Section Questions Question Type Marks per Question Marks
Section A - Macro Economics Q1 - Q10 Multiple choice questions (MCQs) 1 10
Section A - Macro Economics Q11 - Q12 Short Answer Type-I (60 to 80 words) 3 6
Section A - Macro Economics Q13 - Q15 Short Answer Type-II (80 to 100 words) 4 12
Section A - Macro Economics Q16 - Q17 Long Answer type (100 to 150 words) 6 12
Section B - Indian Economic Development Q18 - Q27 Multiple choice questions (MCQs) 1 10
Section B - Indian Economic Development Q28 - Q29 Short Answer Type-I (60 to 80 words) 3 6
Section B - Indian Economic Development Q30 - Q32 Short Answer Type-II (80 to 100 words) 4 12
Section B - Indian Economic Development Q33 - Q34 Long Answer type (100 to 150 words) 6 12
Total 34 questions 80

CBSE Class 12 Economics Marking Scheme 2026

Marking point How it is applied
Value-point marking Marks are awarded against the value points given in the official marking scheme; for a question with parts, marks are awarded for each part and then totalled.
Own expression The marking scheme carries suggested value points only. A correct answer in the student's own words is awarded due marks.
Competency-based questions If a competency-based answer is not from the marking scheme but shows the correct competency, due marks are awarded.
Errors An error is penalised only once; no marks are deducted for its cumulative effect.
Incorrect answer A totally incorrect answer is awarded zero (0) marks.
Extra question If a student attempts an extra question, the answer deserving more marks is retained and the other is scored out.
Scale of marks The full scale of 0 to 80 marks is used and full marks are awarded whenever the answer deserves them.

CBSE Class 12 Economics Unit-Wise Weightage

Part Unit Marks
Part A - Introductory Macroeconomics
National Income and Related Aggregates 10
Money and Banking 6
Determination of Income and Employment 12
Government Budget and the Economy 6
Balance of Payments 6
Total 40
Part B - Indian Economic Development
Development Experience (1947-90) and Economic Reforms since 1991 12
Current Challenges facing Indian Economy 20
Development Experience of India - A Comparison with Neighbours 8
Total 40
Theory Paper 80
Project Work Project File and Viva Voce 20
Grand Total 100

CBSE Class 12 Economics 2026 Paper Analysis