CBSE Class 12 Economics Set 2 - (58/5/2) Question Paper 2026 is available for download here. CBSE conducted the Class 12 Economics exam on March 18, 2026, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Economics theory paper is of 80 marks, and the internal assessment is of 20 marks.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2026 (All Subjects)

The question paper has 34 questions, all compulsory, for 80 marks:

  • Section A is Macro Economics and Section B is Indian Economic Development
  • 20 multiple choice questions of 1 mark each
  • 4 Short Answer Type-I questions of 3 marks each (60 to 80 words)
  • 6 Short Answer Type-II questions of 4 marks each (80 to 100 words)
  • 4 Long Answer type questions of 6 marks each (100 to 150 words)
  • There is no overall choice, but internal choice is given in a few questions

CBSE Class 12 Economics Set 2 - (58/5/2) Question Paper 2026 with Solution PDF

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CBSE Class 12 Economics 2026 Set 2 (58/5/2) Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Liabilities for any firm are its debt/what it owes to others. Contrary to that, for a bank __________ are the main liability.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) loans
  • (B) reserves
  • (C) deposits
  • (D) assets

Question 2:

Read the following statements : Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below :

Assertion (A) : Transfers from Abroad (remittances) are to be recorded on the credit side of capital account of Balance of Payments (BoP).

Reason (R) : All the transactions that lead to inflow of foreign currency from the rest of the world are recorded on the credit side of Balance of Payments (BoP).

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 3:

Suppose, for a hypothetical economy, Reserve Ratio (RR) decreases from 25% to 20%, the total deposits would __________ to ₹ __________ , if primary deposits are ₹ 1,000.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)

  • (A) increase, 5,000
  • (B) decrease, 5,000
  • (C) increase, 4,000
  • (D) decrease, 4,000

Question 4:

Read the following statements carefully :

Statement I : Positive externalities refer to the benefits a firm/an individual provides to another for which they are paid.

Statement II : In case of positive externalities, Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of an economy might lead to an overestimation of the actual welfare.

In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following :

  • (A) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
  • (B) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
  • (C) Both Statements I and II are true.
  • (D) Both Statements I and II are false.

Question 5:

An economy may operate at a level below full employment due to a deficiency in Aggregate Demand (AD) leading to a/an __________ employment equilibrium.

(i) Full

(ii) Over

(iii) Under

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) Only (i)
  • (B) Only (ii)
  • (C) Only (iii)
  • (D) (ii) and (iii)

Question 6:

Following are the steps to measure National Income (NNPFC) by Value Added method :

(i) Calculate Domestic Income (NDPFC) by subtracting Depreciation and Net Indirect Taxes from GDPMP.

(ii) Estimate GDPMP by adding GVA of each firm.

(iii) Estimate and add Net Factor Income from Abroad to NDPFC to arrive at NNPFC.

(iv) Identify and classify the production units into primary, secondary and tertiary sector.

The correct order of arrangement of steps would be :

(Choose the correct option)

  • (A) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
  • (B) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
  • (C) (iv), (ii), (iii), (i)
  • (D) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)

Question 7:

Under the flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined by the __________ .

(i) Government

(ii) Demand and supply

(iii) Intervention of the Central Bank

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) Only (i)
  • (B) Only (ii)
  • (C) Only (iii)
  • (D) (ii) and (iii)

Question 8:

Money supply is a __________ variable, as it refers to the total volume of money held by the __________ at a particular point of time.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)

  • (A) stock, banks
  • (B) flow, banks
  • (C) stock, public
  • (D) flow, public

Question 9:

With reference to the given diagram, OL indicates __________ .

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

(i) Autonomous Consumption

(ii) Autonomous Investment

(iii) Induced Consumption

(iv) Induced Investment

  • (A) Only (i)
  • (B) Only (ii)
  • (C) Sum of (i) and (ii)
  • (D) Sum of (i) and (iii)

Question 10:

“The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) is underway to revise the base year of Gross Domestic Product (GDP). The base year is revised periodically to better capture the structural changes happening in the economy. The proposed new base year for the GDP is 2022 – 23.”

The step taken by the Government of India is for revision of __________ Gross Domestic Product (GDP), as it is measured at __________ prices.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)

  • (A) Real, constant
  • (B) Nominal, current
  • (C) Real, current
  • (D) Nominal, constant

Question 11:

Estimate the value of ‘Income from Property and Entrepreneurship’ on the basis of the given data :

S. No.ItemsAmount (in ₹ crore)
(i)Wages and salaries in cash1,000
(ii)Employer’s contribution to social security schemes300
(iii)Rent500
(iv)Rent-free accommodation by employer700
(v)Royalty200
(vi)Interest150
(vii)Corporate Tax70
(viii)Savings of private corporate sector130
(ix)Indirect Taxes40
(x)Dividends60


Question 12(a):

“Repo Rate and Bank Rate are two different measures, but a change in either of them may have the similar implication on the money supply in an economy.”

Defend or refute the given statement, giving valid explanation in support of your answer.


Question 12(b) (OR):

“The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the sole authority for issuing currency notes in India, with an exception of ₹ 1 denomination that is issued by the Ministry of Finance.”

Do you agree with the given statement ? Explain the rationale behind the monopoly enjoyed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on this front.


Question 13(a):

Define Balance of Payments (BoP) Account.


Question 13(b):

Differentiate between Balance of Trade and Balance of Current Account.


Comprehension:

Read the following text carefully :

“With an objective to improve the growth momentum by stimulating domestic private consumption and investment, the Reserve Bank of India

Read More (RBI) announced a reduction in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) by 100 basis points (1%).”

Based on the above text and common understanding, answer the following questions :


Question 14(i):

Explain the likely cause behind the step taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).


Question 14(ii):

Briefly explain the impact of the step taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on the Aggregate Demand (AD).


Question 15(a):

A company named Tech Info Ltd. manufactures printers. The company purchases machinery from Germany to manufacture printers. These printers are sold in the domestic and foreign markets to households and dealers. The machinery purchased and printers manufactured, both can be classified as final goods.

Do you agree with the given statement ? Give valid arguments in support of your answer.


Question 15(b)(i) (OR):

Define Gross Investments.


Question 15(b)(ii) (OR):

Identify any two components of Gross Investments indicated in the given image.


Question 15(b)(iii) (OR):

Briefly explain any one component of Gross Investments.


Comprehension:

Refer the given text carefully: According to the Economic Survey 2024-25, the government budget’s projections for the fiscal year 2025-26 indicate that gross direct tax revenue will rise by 12.7%, while gross indirect tax collections are expected to grow by 8.3% relative to FY 2024-25. Direct taxes include income tax and corporate tax, reflecting earnings and profits of households and firms. It plays a key role in revenue growth of the government. Indirect taxes encompass Goods and Services Tax (GST), custom duties and other transaction-based levies. Higher growth rate projected for direct taxes suggests a push to enhance tax buoyancy through improved

Read More compliance and reforms. On the other hand, indirect taxes are expected to benefit from consumption trends and Goods and Services Tax (GST) administration improvements. The balance tax strategy aims to mobilize resources while supporting fiscal consolidation and sustainable economic growth. On the basis of the above passage and common understanding, answer the following questions: (i) Differentiate between the two types of taxes indicated in the above text, with suitable examples. (ii) Elaborate the likely consequences of the tax projections made by the government.

Question 16(i):

Differentiate between the two types of taxes indicated in the above text, with suitable examples.


Question 16(ii):

Elaborate the likely consequences of the tax projections made by the government.


Question 17(a)(i):

Assuming for a hypothetical economy, the following data is given :

Income (Y)Consumption (C)Investment (I)Aggregate Demand (AD)
0202040
10010020–
20018020–
30026020280

Calculate the missing values in the given schedule.


Question 17(a)(ii):

Assuming for a hypothetical economy, the following data is given :

Income (Y)Consumption (C)Investment (I)Aggregate Demand (AD)
0202040
10010020–
20018020–
30026020280

Define the term ‘Effective Demand’.


Question 17(a)(iii):

Assuming for a hypothetical economy, the following data is given :

Income (Y)Consumption (C)Investment (I)Aggregate Demand (AD)
0202040
10010020–
20018020–
30026020280

On the basis of the given data, it can be said that the equilibrium level of income is 300.

Do you agree ? If not, explain the adjustment mechanism that may take place to attain equilibrium level of income.


Question 17(b)(i) (OR):

Suppose in an economy, every ₹ 1 increase in investment expenditure leads to an increase of ₹ 5 in the National Income.

Calculate the following :

Value of Investment Multiplier (K).


Question 17(b)(ii) (OR):

Suppose in an economy, every ₹ 1 increase in investment expenditure leads to an increase of ₹ 5 in the National Income.

Calculate the following :

Change in consumption expenditure, if income changes from ₹ 300 to ₹ 400.


Question 17(b)(iii) (OR):

Suppose in an economy, every ₹ 1 increase in investment expenditure leads to an increase of ₹ 5 in the National Income.

Calculate the following :

“Sum of Average Propensity to Consume (APC) and Average Propensity to Save (APS) is always equal to one.”

Justify the given statement with the help of a suitable argument.


Question 18:

In 2009, the Government of India came up with the __________ to make free education, a fundamental right for all children in the age group of 6 – 14 years.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) Mid-Day Meal Scheme
  • (B) Jan Dhan Yojana
  • (C) Tapas Majumdar Committee
  • (D) Right to Education Act

Question 19:

Read the following statements : Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below :

Assertion (A) : India is a member of various regional and economic groupings such as BRICS, G20, etc.

Reason (R) : Membership of economic and regional groupings helps a nation to understand their strengths and weaknesses in comparison to other nations.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 20:

The export surplus during the colonial rule was used by the Britishers to __________ .

(i) Bring gold and silver to India

(ii) Incur expenses on war

(iii) Import invisible items

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) Only (i)
  • (B) (i) and (ii)
  • (C) (i) and (iii)
  • (D) (ii) and (iii)

Question 21:

__________ was set up by the Government of India in 1950 to formulate plans for the most effective and balanced utilisation of resources.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) NITI Aayog
  • (B) Planning Commission
  • (C) Karve Committee
  • (D) World Trade Organisation

Question 22:

Self-Help Groups (SHGs) have emerged to fill the gap in the formal credit system as they __________ .

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) Provide loan after obtaining suitable collateral
  • (B) Lend at a high rate of interest
  • (C) Promote thrift in larger proportions
  • (D) Generally provide collateral-free credit to their members

Question 23:

In the rural areas, diversification towards new areas such as livestock, fisheries and other non-agricultural activities is necessary to __________ .

(i) Reduce the risk from agricultural sector

(ii) Provide unsustainable livelihood options

(iii) Provide supplementary employment

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) Only (i)
  • (B) (i) and (ii)
  • (C) (i) and (iii)
  • (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 24:

Identify, which of the following is not a strategy of sustainable development.

(Choose the correct option)

  • (A) Use of Solar Panels
  • (B) Use of Bio-Pests
  • (C) Use of coal to produce electricity
  • (D) Use of Mini-Hydel Plants

Question 25:

The following table shows the distribution of population and workers in a village :

Total populationNumber of people who are willing and able to workNumber of people who are employed
20001200800

The Worker – Population ratio for village would be __________ %.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) 80
  • (B) 40
  • (C) 60
  • (D) 20

Question 26:

Read the following statements carefully :

Statement I : The colonial government had dual objectives behind the systematic deindustrialization of India.

Statement II : The British reduced India to a mere importer of raw materials for the its modern industries.

In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following :

  • (A) Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
  • (B) Statement I is false and Statement II is true.
  • (C) Both Statements I and II are true.
  • (D) Both Statements I and II are false.

Question 27:

Working persons engaged in various industrial divisions can be classified into three major sectors — Primary sector, secondary sector and tertiary sector.

Identify, which of the following option demonstrates the primary sector.

  • (A) Agriculture
  • (B) Agriculture, mining and quarrying
  • (C) Agriculture, electricity, gas and water supply
  • (D) Transport and storage

Question 28:

Explain the Planning objective of “Growth with Equity”.


Question 29(a):

"At the time of independence, both India and Pakistan inherited similar colonial economic structures. Both the nations adopted many similar economic planning strategies."
Explain any two such similarities in the developmental path of India and Pakistan.


Question 29(b)(i) (OR):

“In 1958, China launched the Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign with a definite aim.”

State the rationale behind the introduction of the Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign.


Question 29(b)(ii) (OR):

“In 1958, China launched the Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign with a definite aim.”

State any two failures of the Great Leap Forward (GLF) campaign.


Question 30:

On the basis of the given data, comment upon the annual growth of Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India and China.

Annual Growth of Gross Domestic Product (%), 1980 – 2017
Country1980 – 902015 – 20172022
India5.77.37.0
China10.36.83.0
Pakistan6.35.34.8


Question 31:

Study the following image carefully :

Interpret the given image and comment upon the phenomenon of environmental crisis as a result of changed production and consumption patterns.


Question 32(a)(i):

Define ‘Human Capital’.


Question 32(a)(ii):

Explain expenditure on ‘On-the-job training’ as a source of human capital formation.


Question 32(b) (OR):

Rayansh works as a teacher in a school. He receives a fixed monthly salary, social security benefits, paid leave and medical allowances. His friend Mohan works at a small toy shop. He has very little income, he does not have access to provident fund, paid leave or health insurance.

Classify the types of sectors Rayansh and Mohan are working in and highlight the distinction between the two sectors.


Comprehension:

Read the following passage carefully :

Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)

Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) aims at promoting organic farming, in turn resulting in improvement of soil health. It promotes Participatory Guarantee System – India (PGS – India), a simple certification system, where farmers and consumers participate directly in the process.

The scheme proposes to cover additional 6,00,000 hectare area under organic farming till 2025 – 26. The objective is to produce agricultural products free from chemicals and pesticide residues by adopting eco-friendly, low-cost technologies.

Key focus areas of Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) :

  • Promote natural

    Read More resource based integrated and climate resilient sustainable farming systems that ensure maintenance and increase of soil fertility, natural resource conservation, on farm nutrients recycling and minimising dependence on external inputs.
  • Reduce farming costs and increase farmers’ income through sustainable organic practices.
  • Chemical-free and nutritious food for human consumption.
  • Protect the environment by using low-cost, traditional and farmer-friendly technologies.
  • Help farmers become entrepreneurs through direct market linkages with local and national markets.

On the basis of the above passage and common understanding, answer the following questions :


Question 33(i):

Define Organic Farming. Explain any two merits of organic farming.


Question 33(ii):

Explain any two thrust areas of Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) in organic farming.


Question 34(a)(i):

“During the post-independence era till 1990s, India’s inward-looking trade policy was supported by various trade barriers.”

Do you agree with the given statement ? Give valid explanation in support of your answer.


Question 34(a)(ii):

The ‘Atmanirbhar Bharat Initiative’ carries forward the same spirit of self-reliance, which was adopted by the Government after 1947.

In the light of the given statement, explain why self-reliance was considered as an important planning objective after independence.


Question 34(b)(i) (OR):

The New Economic Policy (NEP) of 1991 took stabilisation measures and structural measures to correct the prevailing situations.

Briefly discuss these measures.


Question 34(b)(ii) (OR):

“The Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR), 1956 classified all the industries based on state ownership and control in various categories.”

Do you agree with the above statement ? Give valid reasons in support of your answer.

CBSE Class 12 Economics Question Paper Pattern and Marking Scheme

The CBSE Class 12 Economics 2026 theory paper is of 80 marks and has 34 questions, all compulsory, in two sections: Section A (Macro Economics) and Section B (Indian Economic Development). There is no overall choice, but an internal choice (OR) is given in a few questions. The tables below give the paper pattern and the marking rules from the official CBSE question paper and marking scheme.

CBSE Class 12 Economics Question Paper Pattern 2026

Section Questions Question Type Marks per Question Marks
Section A - Macro Economics Q1 - Q10 Multiple choice questions (MCQs) 1 10
Section A - Macro Economics Q11 - Q12 Short Answer Type-I (60 to 80 words) 3 6
Section A - Macro Economics Q13 - Q15 Short Answer Type-II (80 to 100 words) 4 12
Section A - Macro Economics Q16 - Q17 Long Answer type (100 to 150 words) 6 12
Section B - Indian Economic Development Q18 - Q27 Multiple choice questions (MCQs) 1 10
Section B - Indian Economic Development Q28 - Q29 Short Answer Type-I (60 to 80 words) 3 6
Section B - Indian Economic Development Q30 - Q32 Short Answer Type-II (80 to 100 words) 4 12
Section B - Indian Economic Development Q33 - Q34 Long Answer type (100 to 150 words) 6 12
Total 34 questions 80

CBSE Class 12 Economics Marking Scheme 2026

Marking point How it is applied
Value-point marking Marks are awarded against the value points given in the official marking scheme; for a question with parts, marks are awarded for each part and then totalled.
Own expression The marking scheme carries suggested value points only. A correct answer in the student's own words is awarded due marks.
Competency-based questions If a competency-based answer is not from the marking scheme but shows the correct competency, due marks are awarded.
Errors An error is penalised only once; no marks are deducted for its cumulative effect.
Incorrect answer A totally incorrect answer is awarded zero (0) marks.
Extra question If a student attempts an extra question, the answer deserving more marks is retained and the other is scored out.
Scale of marks The full scale of 0 to 80 marks is used and full marks are awarded whenever the answer deserves them.

CBSE Class 12 Economics Unit-Wise Weightage

Part Unit Marks
Part A - Introductory Macroeconomics
National Income and Related Aggregates 10
Money and Banking 6
Determination of Income and Employment 12
Government Budget and the Economy 6
Balance of Payments 6
Total 40
Part B - Indian Economic Development
Development Experience (1947-90) and Economic Reforms since 1991 12
Current Challenges facing Indian Economy 20
Development Experience of India - A Comparison with Neighbours 8
Total 40
Theory Paper 80
Project Work Project File and Viva Voce 20
Grand Total 100

CBSE Class 12 Economics 2026 Paper Analysis