CBSE Class 12 Economics Compartment Set 1 - (58/7/1) Question Paper 2026 details are given here. CBSE conducted the Class 12 Economics Compartment (supplementary) examination on July 28, 2026, from 10:30 AM to 1:30 PM. The Economics paper is of 80 marks and the time allowed is 3 hours. This paper carries the Q.P. code 58/7/1 and is of Set 1. The question paper was handed out at 10:15 AM, and the first 15 minutes were given for reading it.

Also Check: CBSE Class 12 Question Paper 2026 (All Subjects)

The paper has 34 questions in two sections, Section A (Macro Economics) and Section B (Indian Economic Development), and all questions are compulsory. It has the following:

  • 20 multiple choice questions of 1 mark each
  • 4 short answer type-I questions of 3 marks each (60 - 80 words)
  • 6 short answer type-II questions of 4 marks each (80 - 100 words)
  • 4 long answer questions of 6 marks each (100 - 150 words)

CBSE Class 12 Economics Compartment Set 1 - (58/7/1) Question Paper 2026 with Solution PDF

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CBSE Class 12 Economics Compartment 2026 Set 1 (58/7/1) Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

Refer to the given diagram. At which level of income will the value of Average Propensity to Save (APS) be zero ?

(Choose the correct option)

  • (A) Level O
  • (B) Level OY1
  • (C) Level OY2
  • (D) Level OY3

Question 2:

Identify which of the following option will be included while estimating the national income by income method.

(Choose the correct option)

  • (A) Windfall gains
  • (B) Capital loss
  • (C) Mixed income
  • (D) Transfer income

Question 3:

“Anil purchased a house costing ₹ 30 lakhs. For this, he took a bank loan, which he agreed to repay over a period of 25 years in fixed monthly instalments.”

Identify the function of money indicated in the above situation.

(Choose the correct option)

  • (A) Medium of exchange
  • (B) Standard of deferred payments
  • (C) Medium of exchange and standard of deferred payments
  • (D) Store of value

Question 4:

Identify the transactions that will be recorded in India’s capital account of the Balance of Payments (BoP) :

(Choose the correct option)

(i) Indian residents purchasing properties in Dubai

(ii) Indian firms borrowing from international banks

(iii) Remittances by Indians working abroad

(iv) Repayment of outstanding loans by the Indian Government to the IMF

  • (A) (i) and (iii)
  • (B) Only (iii)
  • (C) (ii) and (iii)
  • (D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Question 5:

Ayaan owns a transportation company and spent ₹ 30,000 in the year 2024 – 25 on the repair of all vehicles.

This will be classified as __________ expenditure while estimating the National Income of India.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) Intermediate
  • (B) Consumption
  • (C) Investment
  • (D) Final

Question 6:

Under the Keynesian theory, ‘Reference line’ is a straight line passing through the origin drawn at an angle of __________.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) 25°
  • (B) 45°
  • (C) 55°
  • (D) 75°

Question 7:

Read the following statements carefully :

Statement I : Stock variables are measurable at a particular point of time.

Statement II : A change in any stock variable in a given time period is a flow variable.

In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following :

  • (A) Both Statements I and II are true.
  • (B) Both Statements I and II are false.
  • (C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
  • (D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.

Question 8:

Suppose the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) decides to keep the reserve ratio equal to 10%. The total deposits created will be __________ times the primary deposit.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) ∞ (Infinity)
  • (B) 1 (Unity)
  • (C) 0 (Zero)
  • (D) 10 (Ten)

Question 9:

Read the following statements : Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct option from those given below :

Assertion (A) : Capital account is in balance when capital inflows are equal to capital outflows.

Reason (R) : Autonomous capital inflows indicate a decrease in assets and an increase in liabilities.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Question 10:

“In recent times, the Reserve Bank of India has reduced the Repo Rate (RR).”

The most likely objective of the Reserve Bank of India behind this policy change is to __________ the borrowing cost and __________ liquidity in the economy.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blanks)

  • (A) decrease, decrease
  • (B) increase, increase
  • (C) decrease, increase
  • (D) increase, decrease

Question 11(a):

From the following data of a hypothetical economy, calculate the value of National Income (NNPFC).

S. No.ParticularsAmount (in ₹ Crore)
(i)Mixed income of the self-employed550
(ii)Net factor income from abroad(–) 50
(iii)Rent150
(iv)Consumption of fixed capital40
(v)Profits after tax250
(vi)Wages and salaries1700
(vii)Net indirect taxes50
(viii)Corporate tax150
(ix)Dividends50
(x)Net exports(–) 40
(xi)Interest350
(xii)Social security contributions by employers80


Question 11(b) (OR):

Giving valid reasons, state whether the following will be included in India’s domestic income or not :

(i) Expenditure on stationery items by a firm

(ii) Interest received by a branch of State Bank of India (SBI) in Germany on loans it has extended


Question 12:

“The RBI is implementing a phased reduction of the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) from 4% to 3%.”

In the light of the given information, explain the rationale behind the Reserve Bank of India’s policy initiative to promote credit expansion.


Question 13(a):

A local tea seller uses tea leaves, utensils, sugar, milk, water, ginger and a small gas stove to sell tea to customers.

Using this given information, categorize these items as intermediate or final goods. Explain the basis for distinguishing between these two categories.


Question 13(b) (OR):

“A petrochemical industrial unit was accused of causing groundwater pollution, deterioration in air quality and negatively impacting the health of residents in the nearby villages.”

Analyse the likely impact of this activity on the Gross Domestic Product of the nation and the welfare of people in general.


Question 14:

The exchange rate of the US dollar to the Indian rupee has fluctuated between a high of ₹ 88.325 on September 5, 2025 and a low of ₹ 87.899 on September 2, 2025.

In the light of these exchange rate movements, analyse the likely impact on the exports and imports of India, assuming all other factors constant.


Question 15(a):

State the meaning of ‘Effective Demand’.


Question 15(b):

Explain the adjustment mechanism to restore equilibrium in the economy, if ex-ante Aggregate Demand exceeds ex-ante Aggregate Supply.


Question 16(a)(i):

“Suppose, in an economy, a given rise in investment expenditure results in a five-fold increase in National Income.”

Calculate the rise in the investment expenditure if the change in income was ₹ 2,000 crore.


Question 16(a)(ii):

Explain any one fiscal measure which the government of the nation can initiate to curtail the situation of inflationary gap in the economy.


Question 16(b)(i) (OR):

In a hypothetical economy, whenever the income increases, savings of the households increase by 20%. Their consumption expenditure which is independent of the level of income is ₹ 200 crore. The autonomous investment expenditure is ₹ 100 crore. Calculate the Equilibrium level of Income.


Question 16(b)(ii) (OR):

The Central Bank announced that it will conduct auctions of government securities (G-Sec) for a total of ₹ 80,000 crore through open market operations.

In the light of the information given above, analyse the likely impact of such open market operations of the Central Bank on the aggregate demand of the Indian economy.


Comprehension:

Read the following text carefully :

According to the federal government’s budget document, India will spend ₹ 4.57 trillion ($ 52.81 billion) on subsidies for food, fertilisers and rural employment schemes in the next financial year.

The federal government has budgeted a collective spending of ₹ 4.54 trillion for the current fiscal year ending March 31 across the three types of subsidies, as per the government’s revised estimates. The allocation for the government’s flagship

Read More rural jobs guarantee programme has been retained at ₹ 860 billion while that for fertilisers has been marginally lowered to ₹ 1.67 trillion from ₹ 1.71 trillion revised estimate for 2024 – 25.

The country has budgeted ₹ 2.03 trillion for food subsidy for the upcoming financial year at slightly above the ₹ 1.97 trillion revised estimate for the ongoing fiscal year.

On the basis of the above text and common understanding related to economics, answer the following questions :


Question 17(i):

Explain the objective of government budget indicated in the text.


Question 17(ii):

Identify the category of budgetary expenditure to which subsidies belong and explain the reason in support of your answers.


Question 18:

Indian producers were protected against foreign competition which did not give them the incentive to improve the quality of goods that they produced. Identify the policy referred to :

(Choose the correct option)

  • (A) Industrial Policy Resolution, 1948
  • (B) Policy to promote small-scale industries
  • (C) Import substitution policy
  • (D) Licencing policy

Question 19:

In a hypothetical country, if the worker-population ratio is 30 and total number of workers is 1500, its total population will be __________ .

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) 50
  • (B) 450
  • (C) 5,000
  • (D) 50,000

Question 20:

Read the following statements carefully :

Statement I : Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis is known as the architect of Indian planning.

Statement II : The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1948 was adopted to ensure that the state takes the dominating status in the economy.

In the light of the given statements, choose the correct option from the following :

  • (A) Both Statements I and II are true.
  • (B) Both Statements I and II are false.
  • (C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
  • (D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.

Question 21:

According to Herman Daly (an environmental economist), to achieve sustainable development __________ .

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) the human population should be limited within the carrying capacity
  • (B) technological progress should be input-consuming
  • (C) renewable resources should not be extracted on a sustainable basis
  • (D) the non-renewable resources’ rate of depletion should exceed its rate of substitution

Question 22:

Identify the correct statement from the following :

(Choose the correct option)

  • (A) Human capital is tangible, whereas physical capital is intangible.
  • (B) Human capital formation and physical capital are the same.
  • (C) Human capital benefits not only the owner, but also society in general.
  • (D) Human capital, and physical capital, nature of depreciation remains the same.

Question 23:

Identify the limitation of organic farming from the following :

(Choose the correct option)

  • (A) Healthier food
  • (B) Shorter shelf-life
  • (C) Environment-friendly
  • (D) Lower production cost

Question 24:

Raghav is a factory owner with 50 workers. He laid off 5 workers and noticed that the total factory output remained the same. This situation will most likely be described as __________ employment.

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

  • (A) Structural
  • (B) Disguised
  • (C) Seasonal
  • (D) Frictional

Question 25:

The expenditure by the Indian government on education is expressed as a percentage of __________ .

(Choose the correct option to fill in the blank)

(i) Gross Domestic Product (GDP)

(ii) Total Government Expenditure

(iii) Total State Expenditure

  • (A) (i) and (iii)
  • (B) (i) and (ii)
  • (C) (ii) and (iii)
  • (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Question 26:

Identify the example of a casual worker from the following :

(Choose the correct option)

  • (A) An exporter of carpets
  • (B) A nurse permanently employed in a government hospital
  • (C) A mason working at a construction site
  • (D) A local tailor running his own business

Question 27:

From the set of terms given in Column I and the corresponding facts given in Column II, choose the correct pair :

Column IColumn II
a.Great Leap Forwardi.Students and professionals were sent to the countryside
b.Great Proletarian Cultural Revolutionii.Aimed at bringing changes in agriculture and industry
c.Economic Reforms in Chinaiii.Aimed at nationalisation of capital good industries
d.Establishment of People’s Republic of Chinaiv.All critical sectors were brought under government control

  • (A) a-i
  • (B) b-ii
  • (C) c-iii
  • (D) d-iv

Question 28:

“India and Pakistan followed similar developmental strategies for their own development paths.”

Do you agree with the given statement ? Justify your answer with a relevant explanation.


Question 29(a):

“Human capital formation through education and health is central to the process of development of a country.”

Do you agree with this statement ? Justify your answer with a valid explanation.


Question 29(b) (OR):

“India is striving for higher rates of economic growth, but this often comes at the cost of environmental degradation.”

In the light of the above statement, discuss any one strategy by which India can achieve a balance between economic growth and sustainable development.


Question 30:

“Higher productivity has performed an economic miracle in China. Chinese productivity increased at an annual rate of 3.9% during 1979 – 94, compared to 1.1% during 1953 – 78. By the early 1990s, output growth exceeded 50%. Such explosive growth in productivity is remarkable.”

In the light of the given text and common understanding related to economics, discuss the most likely reasons behind this growth of productivity in China during 1979 – 94.


Question 31(a):

Explain the main objectives and impacts of trade and investment policy reforms of 1991 in India.


Question 31(b) (OR):

“The enforcement of land ceiling laws in India faced numerous challenges which restricted their success.”

Do you agree with the given statement ? Give a valid explanation in support of your answer.


Question 32(a):

Answer the following questions on the basis of the above image :

Which category of workers enjoys a greater proportion of the total workforce in both rural and urban areas ?


Question 32(b):

Answer the following questions on the basis of the above image :

Discuss any two reasons behind this pattern.


Question 33(a)(i)(I):

As the Disinvestment Commission has observed, “the essence of a long-term disinvestment strategy should be not only to enhance budgetary receipts, but also minimise budgetary support towards unprofitable units. Also, it must ensure the long-term viability and sustainable levels of employment in such units.”

Identify the sector, whose disinvestment is being referred to in the statement.


Question 33(a)(i)(II):

As the Disinvestment Commission has observed, “the essence of a long-term disinvestment strategy should be not only to enhance budgetary receipts, but also minimise budgetary support towards unprofitable units. Also, it must ensure the long-term viability and sustainable levels of employment in such units.”

Justify this disinvestment strategy adopted by the Indian Government.


Question 33(a)(ii):

“Agricultural stagnation in colonial India was not only due to the use of backward techniques of production, but also a result of exploitative land settlement systems and policies adopted by the British.”

Defend or refute this statement giving valid arguments.


Question 33(b)(i) (OR):

“In the 1950s, excessive government regulation prevented the growth of entrepreneurship.”

Do you agree with the given statement ? Give a valid explanation in support of your answer.


Question 33(b)(ii) (OR):

“The tax reductions in the reform period have not resulted in an increase in tax revenue.”

Justify the given statement with a valid explanation.


Comprehension:

Read the following text carefully :

India’s floriculture industry has grown into a high-performing sector, earning its status as a “sunrise industry” with a 100 per cent export orientation. Driven by a growing global demand for flowers, floriculture has evolved into a key commercial venture within the agriculture sector.

Commercial floriculture is particularly lucrative, offering higher returns per unit area than many traditional field crops. Production of flowers witnessed more profitability compared to cereals, pulses, vegetables and oilseeds. With subsidy support and crop loan financing, it is

Read More a promising venture for marginal and small landholdings, which constitute more than 96 per cent of the total landholdings and 63 per cent of the area of cultivation under floriculture.

In FY24, approximately 297 thousand hectares were dedicated to floriculture. During the same period, India exported 19,678 metric tonnes of floriculture products, earning ₹ 717.83 crore (USD 86.63 million). Key export destinations included the USA, the Netherlands, the UAE, the UK, Canada and Malaysia.

On the basis of the given text and common understanding related to economics, answer the following questions :


Question 34(i):

Why is floriculture essential for providing a sustainable livelihood for the farmers ?


Question 34(ii):

Explain any two ways in which the government can extend help to the small and marginal farmers.

CBSE Class 12 Economics Compartment 2026 Set 1 - (58/7/1) Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

Question Type Number of Questions Marks per Question Word Limit Marks
Multiple choice questions 20 1 - 20
Short answer type-I 4 3 60 - 80 words 12
Short answer type-II 6 4 80 - 100 words 24
Long answer type 4 6 100 - 150 words 24
Total 34 questions 80

CBSE Class 12 Economics Compartment 2026 Set 1 - (58/7/1) Question Paper FAQs

Ques. How many questions are there in the Economics Compartment 2026 paper (Set 1 - 58/7/1)?

Ans. The paper has 34 questions: 20 multiple choice questions, 4 short answer type-I, 6 short answer type-II and 4 long answer questions.

Ques. How are the marks divided?

Ans. The 20 multiple choice questions carry 20 marks, the short answer type-I questions 12 marks, the short answer type-II questions 24 marks and the long answer questions 24 marks, for a total of 80 marks.

Ques. Is there any choice in the paper?

Ans. There is no overall choice. An internal choice is given in a few questions, and only one of the choices has to be attempted. All parts of a question should be attempted together.

Ques. How much time is given for the CBSE Class 12 Economics Compartment 2026 paper?

Ans. The paper is of 3 hours (10:30 AM to 1:30 PM). The question paper is distributed at 10:15 AM and candidates get 15 minutes to read it before they start writing.

Ques. When was the CBSE Class 12 Economics Compartment 2026 exam held?

Ans. The Class 12 compartment (supplementary) paper of Economics was held on July 28, 2026.

Ques. Where can I get the official CBSE Class 12 Economics Compartment question paper?

Ans. The official question papers are published on the CBSE website, cbse.gov.in.