JEE Main 2024 31 Jan Shift 2 Question Paper (Available)- Download Solution PDF with Answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

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JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper with Solutions and Answer Key PDF is available here. NTA conducted the JEE Main 2024 Jan 31 Shift 2 exam from 3 PM to 6 PM. The JEE Main 2024 Jan 31 Shift 2 question paper includes 90 questions equally divided into Physics, Chemistry, and Maths. Candidates must attempt 75 questions in a 3-hour time duration. The official JEE Main 2024 Question Paper PDF  for the Jan 31 Shift 2 exam is available for download using the link below.
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JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 2 2024 Questions with Solution

Question 1:

The number of ways in which 21 identical apples can be distributed among three children such that each child gets at least 2 apples is:

  • (1) 406
  • (2) 130
  • (3) 142
  • (4) 136
Correct Answer: (4) 136
View Solution

Question 2:

Let A(a, b), B(3, 4), and C(-6, -8) denote the centroid, circumcenter, and orthocenter of a triangle. The distance of the point P(2a+3, 7b+5) from the line 2x + 3y - 4 = 0 measured parallel to x - 2y - 1 = 0 is:

  • (1) 15√5/7
  • (2) 17√5/6
  • (3) 17√5/7
  • (4) √5/17
Correct Answer: (3) 17√5/7
View Solution

Question 3:

Let z1 and z2 be two complex numbers such that z1 + z2 = 5 and z13 + z23 = 20 + 15i. Then |z14 + z24| equals:

  • (1) 30√3
  • (2) 75
  • (3) 15√15
  • (4) 25√3
Correct Answer: (4) 25√3
View Solution

Question 4:

Let a variable line passing through the center of the circle x² + y² - 16x - 4y = 0 meet the positive coordinate axes at points A and B. The minimum value of OA + OB, where O is the origin, is:

  • (1) 12
  • (2) 18
  • (3) 20
  • (4) 24
Correct Answer: (3) 20
View Solution

Question 5:

Let f(x) = ∫-xx (|t| - t²)e-t² dt and g(x) = ∫0 t1/2e-t dt. The value of f(√ln 9) + g(√ln 9) is:

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 10
Correct Answer: (3) 8
View Solution

Question 6:

Let (α, β, γ) be the mirror image of (2, 3, 5) in the line (x-1)/2 = (y-2)/3 = (z-3)/4. Then 2α + 3β + 4γ is:

  • (1) 32
  • (2) 33
  • (3) 31
  • (4) 34
Correct Answer: (2) 33
View Solution

Question 7:

Let P be a parabola with vertex (2, 3) and directrix 2x + y = 6. Let an ellipse E with eccentricity 1/√2 pass through the focus of P. The square of the latus rectum of E is:

  • (1) 385/8
  • (2) 347/8
  • (3) 512/25
  • (4) 656/25
Correct Answer: (4) 656/25
View Solution

Question 8:

The temperature T(t) of a body at time t = 0 is 160°F. If T(15) = 120°F, then T(45) is:

  • (1) 85°F
  • (2) 95°F
  • (3) 90°F
  • (4) 80°F
Correct Answer: (3) 90°F
View Solution

Question 9:

Let 2nd, 8th, and 44th terms of a non-constant A.P. be respectively the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd terms of a G.P. If the first term of the A.P. is 1, then the sum of the first 20 terms is equal to:

  • (1) 980
  • (2) 960
  • (3) 990
  • (4) 970
Correct Answer: (4) 970
View Solution

Question 10:

If limx → ∞ (f(7x)/f(x)) = 1, then limx → ∞ [(f(5x)/f(x)) - 1] is:

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 7/5
  • (4) 1
Correct Answer: (2) 0
View Solution


Question 11:

Two integers x and y are chosen with replacement from the set {0,1,2,...,10}. Then the probability that |x - y| > 5 is:

(1) 30/121
(2) 62/121
(3) 60/121
(4) 31/121

Correct Answer: (1) 30/121
View Solution

Question 12:

If the domain of the function f(x) = cos⁻¹(2 - |x|) / 4 is [−α, β) − {γ}, then α + β + γ is equal to:

(1) 12
(2) 9
(3) 11
(4) 8

Correct Answer: (3) 11
View Solution

Question 13:

Consider the system of linear equations x + y + z = 4μ, x + 2y + 2z = 10μ, x + 3y + 4λz = μ² + 15. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

(1) The system has a unique solution if λ = 1/2 and μ = 1
(2) The system is inconsistent if λ = 1/2 and μ = 1
(3) The system has an infinite number of solutions if λ = 1/2 and μ = 15
(4) The system is consistent if λ = 1/2

Correct Answer: (2) The system is inconsistent if λ = 1/2 and μ = 1
View Solution

Question 14:

If the circles (x + 1)² + (y +2)² = r² and x² + y² - 4x - 4y + 4 = 0 intersect at exactly two distinct points, then:

(1) 5 < r < 9
(2) 0 < r < 7
(3) 3 < r < 7
(4) 1/2 < r < 7

Correct Answer: (3) 3 < r < 7
View Solution

Question 15:

If the length of the minor axis of an ellipse is equal to half of the distance between the foci, then the eccentricity of the ellipse is:

(1) √5 / 3
(2) √3 / 2
(3) 1 / √3
(4) 2 / √5

Correct Answer: (4) 2 / √5
View Solution

Question 16:

Let M denote the median of the following frequency distribution.
Class    Frequency
0-4            3
4-8            9
8-12          10
12-16         8
16-20         6
Then 20M is equal to:

(1) 416
(2) 104
(3) 52
(4) 208

Correct Answer: (4) 208
View Solution

Question 17:

If f(x) = 2cos⁴x / (3 + 2cos⁴x) + 2sin⁴x / (3 + 2sin⁴x), then 1/5 f'(0) is equal to:

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 6

Correct Answer: (1) 0
View Solution

Question 18:

Let A(2,3,5) and C(−3,4,−2) be opposite vertices of a parallelogram ABCD. If the diagonal BD = i + 2j + 3k, then the area of the parallelogram is equal to:

(1) 1/2 √410
(2) 1/2 √474
(3) 1/2 √586
(4) 1/2 √306

Correct Answer: (2) 1/2 √474
View Solution

Question 19:

If 2sin³x + sin²x cosx + 4sinⁿx − 4 = 0 has exactly 3 solutions in the interval (0, nπ/2), n ∈ N, then the roots of the equation x² + nx + (n−3) = 0 belong to:

(1) (0, ∞)
(2) (−∞, 0)
(3) −√17/2, √17/2
(4) Z

Correct Answer: (2) (−∞, 0)
View Solution

Question 20:

Let f : −π/2, π/2 → R be a differentiable function such that f(0) = 1/2. If the limit lim(x→0) ∫(0 to x) f(t)dt / (e^(x²) - 1) = α, then 8α² is equal to:

(1) 16
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4

Correct Answer: (2) 2
View Solution

Question 21:

A group of 40 students appeared in an examination of 3 subjects - Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry. It was found that all students passed in at least one of the subjects, 20 students passed in Mathematics, 25 in Physics, and 16 in Chemistry. At most 11 students passed in both Mathematics and Physics, 15 in both Physics and Chemistry, and 10 in both Mathematics and Chemistry. The maximum number of students passed in all three subjects is:

Correct Answer: 10
View Solution

Question 22:

If d1 is the shortest distance between the lines x+1/2 = y-1/-12 = z/1 and x-1/-7 = y+8/2 = z-4/5, and d2 is the shortest distance between the lines x-1/2 = y-2/1 = z-6/-3 and x/1 = y+2/1 = z-1/6, then the value of 32√3d1/d2 is:

Correct Answer: 16
View Solution

Question 23:

Let the latus rectum of the hyperbola x²/9 - y²/b² = 1 subtend an angle of π/3 at the center of the hyperbola. If b² is equal to 1/m(1+√n), where l and m are co-prime numbers, then l²+m²+n² is equal to:

Correct Answer: 182
View Solution

Question 24:

Let A = {1,2,3,...,7} and let P(1) denote the power set of A. If the number of functions f : A → P(A) such that a ∈ f(a), ∀a ∈ A is mn, and m and n are least, then m + n is equal to:

Correct Answer: 44
View Solution

Question 25:

The value of ∫(0 to 9) 10x / (x+1) dx is:

Correct Answer: (2) 13π/8(4√3+3)
View Solution

Question 26:

Number of integral terms in the expansion of (√7z + 1/(6√z))^824 is equal to:

Correct Answer: (1) 138
View Solution

Question 27:

Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential equation (1 − x²)dy = xy + x³ + 2√1−x² dx, with y(0) = 0. If y(1/2) = m/n, where m and n are co-prime numbers, then m + n is equal to:

Correct Answer: (1) 97
View Solution

Question 28:

Let α, β ∈ N be roots of the equation x² − 70x + λ = 0, where λ/2, λ/3 ∉ N. If λ assumes the minimum possible value, then √α−1+√β−1(λ+35)/|α−β| is equal to:

Correct Answer: 60
View Solution

Question 29:

If the function f(x) = { 1/|x| , |x| ≥ 2
                                            ax² + 2b , |x| < 2 } is differentiable on R, then 48(a + b) is equal to:

Correct Answer: 15
View Solution

Question 30:

Let α = 1² + 4² + 8² + 13² + 19² + 26² + ... up to 10 terms and β = Σ₁₀n=1 n⁴. If 4α - β = 55k + 40, then k is equal to:

Correct Answer: 353
View Solution

Question 31:

Match List-I with List-II.
List-I | List-II
A. Coefficient of viscosity | I. [ML⁻¹T⁻¹]
B. Surface Tension | II. [ML⁰T⁻²]
C. Angular momentum | III. [ML²T⁻¹]
D. Rotational kinetic energy | IV. [ML²T⁻²]


(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

Correct Answer: (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
View Solution

Question 32:

All surfaces shown in the figure are frictionless, and the pulleys and the string are light. The acceleration of the block of mass 2 kg is:

(1) g
(2) g/3
(3) 2g/3
(4) g/4

Correct Answer: (2) g/3
View Solution

Question 33:

A potential divider circuit is shown in the figure. The output voltage ( V₀ ) is:

(1) 4V
(2) 2 mV
(3) 0.5 V
(4) 12 mV

Correct Answer: (3) 0.5 V
View Solution

Question 34:

Young’s modulus of a material of a wire of length ( L ) and cross-sectional area ( A ) is ( Y ). If the length of the wire is doubled and cross-sectional area is halved, then Young’s modulus will be:
(1) Y/4
(2) Y
(3) 4Y
(4) 2Y

Correct Answer: (2) Y
View Solution

Question 35:

The work function of a substance is 3.0 eV. The longest wavelength of light that can cause the emission of photoelectrons from this substance is approximately:
(1) 215 nm
(2) 414 nm
(3) 400 nm
(4) 200 nm

Correct Answer: (2) 414 nm
View Solution

Question 36:

The ratio of the magnitude of the kinetic energy (KE) to the potential energy (PE) of an electron in the 5th excited state of a hydrogen atom is:

(1) 4
(2) 1/4
(3) 1/2
(4) 1
Correct Answer: 1/2
View Solution

Question 37:

A particle is placed at point A on a frictionless track ABC as shown. It is gently pushed to the right. The speed of the particle when it reaches point B is:
(Take g = 10 m/s²)

(1) 20 m/s
(2) √10 m/s
(3) 2√10 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

Correct Answer: (2) √10 m/s
View Solution

Question 38:

The electric field of an electromagnetic wave in free space is represented as E = E₀ cos(ωt - kx) ĩ. The corresponding magnetic induction vector will be:

(1) B = E₀ C cos(ωt − kx) ĵ
(2) B = (E₀/C) cos(ωt − kx) ĵ
(3) B = E₀ C cos(ωt + kx) ĵ
(4) B = (E₀/C) cos(ωt + kx) ĵ

Correct Answer: (2) B = (E₀/C) cos(ωt − kx) ĵ
View Solution

Question 39:

Two insulated circular loops A and B of radius a, carrying a current I in anticlockwise direction, are arranged perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of the magnetic induction at the center will be:

(1) √2 μ₀I/a
(2) μ₀I/(2a)
(3) μ₀I√2/a
(4) 2μ₀I/a

Correct Answer: (3) μ₀I√2/a
View Solution

Question 40:

The diffraction pattern of light of wavelength 400 nm diffracting from a slit of width 0.2 mm is focused on the focal plane of a convex lens of focal length 100 cm. The width of the 1st secondary maxima will be:

  • (1) 2 mm
  • (2) 2 cm
  • (3) 0.02 mm
  • (4) 0.2 mm
Correct Answer: (1) 2 mm
View Solution

Question 41:

Primary coil of a transformer is connected to 220 V ac. Primary and secondary turns of the transformer are 100 and 10 respectively. The secondary coil of the transformer is connected to two series resistances shown in the figure. The output voltage V0 is:

  • (1) 7 V
  • (2) 15 V
  • (3) 44 V
  • (4) 22 V
Correct Answer: (1) 7 V
View Solution

Question 42:

The gravitational potential at a point above the surface of Earth is −5.12 × 10⁷ J/kg and the acceleration due to gravity at that point is 6.4m/s². Assume that the mean radius of Earth to be 6400 km. The height of this point above the Earth’s surface is:

  • (1) 1600 km
  • (2) 540 km
  • (3) 1200 km
  • (4) 1000 km
Correct Answer: (1) 1600 km
View Solution

Question 43:

An electric toaster has resistance of 60 Ω at room temperature (27°C). The toaster is connected to a 220 V supply. If the current flowing through it reaches 2.75 A, the temperature attained by toaster is around: (if α = 2× 10⁻⁴ °C⁻¹)

  • (1) 694°C
  • (2) 1235°C
  • (3) 1694°C
  • (4) 1667°C
Correct Answer: (3) 1694°C
View Solution

Question 44:

A Zener diode of breakdown voltage 10V is used as a voltage regulator as shown in the figure. The current through the Zener diode is:

  • (1) 50 mA
  • (2) 0
  • (3) 30 mA
  • (4) 20 mA
Correct Answer: (3) 30 mA
View Solution

Question 45:

Two thermodynamical processes are shown in the figure. The molar heat capacity for process A and B are CA and CB. The molar heat capacity at constant pressure and constant volume are represented by CP and CV respectively. Choose the correct statement:

  • (1) CB = ∞, CA = 0
  • (2) CA = 0 and CB = ∞
  • (3) CP > CA = CB = CV
  • (4) CA > CP > CV > CB
Correct Answer: (2) CA = 0 and CB = ∞
View Solution

Question 46:

The electrostatic potential due to an electric dipole at a distance r varies as:

  • (1) r
  • (2) 1/r²
  • (3) 1/r³
  • (4) 1/r
Correct Answer: (2) 1/r²
View Solution

Question 47:

A spherical body of mass 100 g is dropped from a height of 10 m from the ground. After hitting the ground, the body rebounds to a height of 5 m. The impulse of force imparted by the ground to the body is given by: (given g = 9.8m/s²)

  • (1) 4.32 kg m/s
  • (2) 4.2 kg m/s
  • (3) 2.39 kg m/s
  • (4) 2.39 kg m/s
Correct Answer: (3) 2.39 kg m/s
View Solution

Question 48:

A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity u making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The magnitude of the angular momentum of the projectile about the point of projection when the particle is at its maximum height is:

  • (1) √3 m u² / (16 g)
  • (2) √3 m u² / (2 g)
  • (3) m u³ / (√2 g)
  • (4) zero
Correct Answer: (1) √3 m u² / (16 g)
View Solution

Question 49:

At which temperature does the r.m.s. velocity of a hydrogen molecule equal that of an oxygen molecule at 47°C?

  • (1) 80 K
  • (2) -73 K
  • (3) 4 K
  • (4) 20 K
Correct Answer: (4) 20 K
View Solution

Question 50:

A series L-R circuit connected to an AC source E = 25 sin(1000 t) V has a power factor of 1/√2. If the source of emf is changed to E = 20 sin(2000 t) V, the new power factor of the circuit will be:

  • (1) 1/√2
  • (2) 1/√3
  • (3) 1/√5
  • (4) 1/√7
Correct Answer: (3) 1/√5
View Solution

Question 51:

The horizontal component of Earth’s magnetic field at a place is 3.5 × 10−5 T. A very long straight conductor carrying a current of √2 A is placed from South East to North West. The force per unit length experienced by the conductor is:

  • (1) 35 × 10−6 N/m
  • (2) 50 × 10−6 N/m
  • (3) 25 × 10−6 N/m
  • (4) 10 × 10−6 N/m
Correct Answer: (1) 35 × 10−6 N/m
View Solution

Question 52:

Two cells are connected in opposition. Cell E1 has 8 V emf and 2 Ω internal resistance. Cell E2 has 2 V emf and 4 Ω internal resistance. The terminal potential difference of cell E2 is:

  • (1) 7 V
  • (2) 15 V
  • (3) 44 V
  • (4) 22 V
Correct Answer: (1) 7 V
View Solution

Question 53:

An electron in a hydrogen atom has energy En = −0.85 eV in an excited state. The maximum number of allowed transitions to lower energy levels is:

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 5
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 7
Correct Answer: (3) 6
View Solution

Question 54:

Each of three blocks P, Q, and R (each 3 kg) is attached to a wire. Wires A and B each have a cross-sectional area of 0.005 cm² and Young’s modulus of 2 × 1011 N/m². Neglecting friction, the longitudinal strain on wire B is ×10−4:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (2) 2
View Solution

Question 55:

The distance between the object and its image (which is twice the size of the object) formed by a convex lens is 45 cm. The focal length of the lens is:

  • (1) 5 cm
  • (2) 10 cm
  • (3) 15 cm
  • (4) 20 cm
Correct Answer: (2) 10 cm
View Solution

Question 56:

The displacement and the increase in the velocity of a moving particle in the time interval from t to (t+1) seconds are 125 m and 50 m/s, respectively. The distance travelled by the particle in the (t+2)th second is:

  • (1) 100 m
  • (2) 150 m
  • (3) 175 m
  • (4) 200 m
Correct Answer: (3) 175 m
View Solution

Question 57:

A capacitor of capacitance C and potential V has energy E. It is connected to another capacitor of capacitance 2C and potential 2V. Then the loss of energy is x/3E, where x is:

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (2) 2
View Solution

Question 58:

Consider a disc of mass 5 kg, radius 2 m, rotating with angular velocity of 10 rad/s about an axis perpendicular to the plane of rotation. An identical disc is gently placed over the rotating disc along the same axis. The energy dissipated so that both discs continue to rotate together without slipping is:

  • (1) 200 J
  • (2) 250 J
  • (3) 300 J
  • (4) 350 J
Correct Answer: (2) 250 J
View Solution

Question 59:

In a closed organ pipe, the frequency of the fundamental note is 30 Hz. A certain amount of water is now poured in the organ pipe so that the fundamental frequency is increased to 110 Hz. If the organ pipe has a cross-sectional area of 2 cm², the amount of water poured in the organ pipe is x grams. (Take speed of sound in air as 330 m/s)

  • (1) 200 g
  • (2) 300 g
  • (3) 400 g
  • (4) 500 g
Correct Answer: (3) 400 g
View Solution

Question 60:

A ceiling fan having 3 blades of length 80 cm each is rotating with an angular velocity of 1200 rpm. The magnetic field of Earth in that region is 0.5 G and the angle of dip is 30°. The emf induced across the blades is Nπ × 10⁻⁵ V. The value of N is:

  • (1) 16
  • (2) 24
  • (3) 32
  • (4) 40
Correct Answer: (3) 32
View Solution

Question 61:

Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: The gas liberated on warming a salt with dilute H₂SO₄, turns a piece of paper dipped in lead acetate into black; it is a confirmatory test for sulphide ion.
Statement-II: In statement-I the colour of paper turns black because of formation of lead sulphide
.


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

  • (1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
  • (2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
  • (3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
  • (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
Correct Answer: (3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
View Solution

Question 62:

This reduction reaction is known as:

  • (1) Rosenmund reduction
  • (2) Wolff-Kishner reduction
  • (3) Stephen reduction
  • (4) Etard reduction
Correct Answer: (1) Rosenmund reduction
View Solution

Question 63:

Sugar which does not give reddish brown precipitate with Fehling’s reagent is:

  • (1) Sucrose
  • (2) Lactose
  • (3) Glucose
  • (4) Maltose
Correct Answer: (1) Sucrose
View Solution

Question 64:

Given below are the two statements: one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): There is a considerable increase in covalent radius from N to P. However, from As to Bi only a small increase in covalent radius is observed.
Reason (R): Covalent and ionic radii in a particular oxidation state increase down the group.


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

  • (1) (A) is false but (R) is true
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Correct Answer: (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
View Solution

Question 65:

Which of the following molecule/species is most stable?

  • (1) Aromatic compound
  • (2) Anti-aromatic compound
  • (3) Non-aromatic compound
  • (4) All are equally stable
Correct Answer: (1) Aromatic compound
View Solution

Question 66:

Diamagnetic Lanthanoid ions are:

  • (1) Nd³⁺ and Eu³⁺
  • (2) La³⁺ and Ce⁴⁺
  • (3) Nd³⁺ and Ce⁴⁺
  • (4) Lu³⁺ and Eu³⁺
Correct Answer: (2) La³⁺ and Ce⁴⁺
View Solution

Question 67:

Aluminium chloride in acidified aqueous solution forms an ion having geometry:

  • (1) Octahedral
  • (2) Square Planar
  • (3) Tetrahedral
  • (4) Trigonal bipyramidal
Correct Answer: (1) Octahedral
View Solution

Question 68:

Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: The orbitals having the same energy are called as degenerate orbitals.
Statement-II: In hydrogen atom, 3p and 3d orbitals are not degenerate orbitals.


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

  • (1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
  • (2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
  • (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
  • (4) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
Correct Answer: (1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false
View Solution

Question 69:

Example of vinylic halide is:

  • (1) CH₂=CH–Cl
  • (2) CH₃–CH₂–CH₂Cl
  • (3) C₆H₅–CH₂Cl
  • (4) CH₃–C≡CCl
Correct Answer: (1) CH₂=CH–Cl
View Solution

Question 70:

Structure of 4-Methylpent-2-enal is:

  • (1) H₂C = C - CH₂ - C = C - H
  • (2) CH₃ - CH₂ - C = CH - C = CH
  • (3) CH₃ - CH₂ - CH = C - CH₃
  • (4) CH₃ - CH = CH - C = C - H
Correct Answer: (4) CH₃ - CH = CH - C = C - H
View Solution

Question 71:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Molecule) | List-II (Shape)
(A) BrF₅ | (I) T-shape
(B) H₂O | (II) See-saw
(C) ClF₃ | (III) Bent
(D) SF₄ | (IV) Square pyramidal


Choose the correct answer from the options below:

  • (1) (A) - I, (B) - III, (C) - IV, (D) - II
  • (2) (A) - II, (B) - I, (C) - III, (D) - IV
  • (3) (A) - III, (B) - IV, (C) - I, (D) - II
  • (4) (A) - IV, (B) - III, (C) - I, (D) - II
Correct Answer: (4) (A) - IV, (B) - III, (C) - I, (D) - II
View Solution

Question 72:

The final product A, formed in the following multistep reaction sequence is:
CH₃ - C≡CH + Na → A
B → CH₃ - C≡C - CH₂ - CH₂ - CH₃ + NaBr


Choose the correct answer from the options below:

  • (1) A = CH₃–C≡CNa, B = CH₃–CH₂–CH₂–Br
  • (2) A = CH₃–CH₂–CH₂Br, B = CH₃–C≡C–CH₃
  • (3) A = CH₃–C≡CNa, B = CH₃–C≡CH
  • (4) A = CH₃–C≡CNa, B = CH₃–CH₂–CH₃
Correct Answer: (1) A = CH₃–C≡CNa, B = CH₃–CH₂–CH₂–Br
View Solution

Question 73:

In the given reactions, identify the reagent A and reagent B:
CH₃ - C≡CH + Na → A
B → CH₃ - C≡C - CH₂ - CH₂ - CH₃ + NaBr


(1) A-CrO₃, B-CrO₃
(2) A-CrO₃, B-CrO₂Cl₂
(3) A-CrO₂Cl₂, B-CrO₂Cl₂
(4) A-CrO₂Cl₂, B-CrO₃

Correct Answer: (2) A-CrO₃, B-CrO₂Cl₂
View Solution

Question 74:

Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): CH₂=CH−CH₂−Cl is an example of allyl halide.
Reason (R): Allyl halides are the compounds in which the halogen atom is attached to an sp² hybridised carbon atom.


Choose the most appropriate answer from the options below:

  • (1) (A) is true but (R) is false
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Correct Answer: (1) (A) is true but (R) is false
View Solution

Question 75:

What happens to the freezing point of benzene when a small quantity of naphthalene is added to benzene?

  • (1) Increases
  • (2) Remains unchanged
  • (3) First decreases and then increases
  • (4) Decreases
Correct Answer: (4) Decreases
View Solution

Question 76:

Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Species) | List-II (Electronic Distribution)
(A) Cr²⁺ | (I) 3d⁸
(B) Mn⁺ | (II) 3d⁵4s¹
(C) Ni²⁺ | (III) 3d⁴
(D) V⁺ | (IV) 3d³4s¹


Choose the correct answer from the options below:

  • (1) (A) - I, (B) - II, (C) - III, (D) - IV
  • (2) (A) - III, (B) - IV, (C) - I, (D) - II
  • (3) (A) - IV, (B) - III, (C) - I, (D) - II
  • (4) (A) - II, (B) - I, (C) - IV, (D) - III
Correct Answer: (1) (A) - I, (B) - II, (C) - III, (D) - IV
View Solution

Question 77:

Compound A formed in the following reaction reacts with B, giving the product C.
CH₃−C≡CH + Na → A
B → CH₃−C≡C−CH₂−CH₂−CH₃ + NaBr
Find out A and B.

  • (1) A = CH₃–C≡CNa, B = CH₃–CH₂–CH₂–Br
  • (2) A = CH₃–CH₂–CH₂Br, B = CH₃–C≡C–CH₃
  • (3) A = CH₃–C≡CNa, B = CH₃–C≡CH
  • (4) A = CH₃–C≡CNa, B = CH₃–CH₂–CH₃
Correct Answer: A = CH₃–C≡CNa, B = CH₃–CH₂–CH₂–Br
View Solution

Question 78:

Following is a confirmatory test for aromatic primary amines. Identify reagent (A) and (B).
A: NaNO₂ + HCl, 0–5°C
B: Phenol
Find out A and B.

Correct Answer: A = NaNO₂ + HCl, B = Phenol
View Solution

Question 79:

The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with dilute HNO₃ before testing for halogens because:

  • (1) AgCN is soluble in HNO₃
  • (2) Silver halides are soluble in HNO₃
  • (3) Ag₂S is soluble in HNO₃
  • (4) Na₂S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO₃
Correct Answer: (4) Na₂S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO₃
View Solution

Question 80:

Choose the correct statements from the following:
(A) Ethane-1,2-diamine is a chelating ligand.
(B) Metallic aluminium is produced by electrolysis of aluminium oxide in presence of cryolite.
(C) Cyanide ion is used as ligand for leaching of silver.
(D) Phosphine acts as a ligand in Wilkinson catalyst.
(E) The stability constants of Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ are similar with EDTA complexes.

  • (1) (B), (C), (E) only
  • (2) (A), (B), (C) only
  • (3) (B), (C), (D), (E) only
  • (4) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
Correct Answer: (3) (B), (C), (D), (E) only
View Solution

Question 81:

The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04 mol·L−1·s−1 at 10 minutes and 0.03 mol·L−1·s−1 at 20 minutes after initiation. The half-life of the reaction is:

Correct Answer: 24 minutes
View Solution

Question 82:

The pH at which Mg(OH)₂ [Ksp = 1 × 10⁻¹¹] begins to precipitate from a solution containing 0.10 M Mg²⁺ ions is:
 

Correct Answer: 9
View Solution

Question 83:

An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic transformation starting from the point A and coming back to the same point by tracing the path A → B → C → A as shown in the diagram. The total work done in the process is:
 

Correct Answer: 200 J
View Solution

Question 84:

If the IUPAC name of an element is "Unununnium", then the element belongs to nth group of the periodic table. The value of n is:
 

Correct Answer: 11
View Solution

Question 85:

The total number of molecular orbitals formed from 2s and 2p atomic orbitals of a diatomic molecule is:
 

Correct Answer: 8
View Solution

Question 86:

On a thin layer chromatographic plate, an organic compound moved by 3.5 cm, while the solvent moved by 5 cm. The retardation factor of the organic compound is ×10−1:
 

Correct Answer: 7
View Solution

Question 87:

The compound formed by the reaction of ethanol with semicarbazide contains number of nitrogen atoms.
 

Correct Answer: 3
View Solution

Question 88:

A 0.05 cm thick coating of silver is deposited on a plate of 0.05 m² area. The number of silver atoms deposited on the plate is ×1023 (At. mass Ag = 108, d = 7.9 g/cm³):
 

Correct Answer: 11
View Solution

Question 89:

2MnO₄⁻ + 6I⁻ + 4H₂O → 3I₂ + 2MnO₂ + 8OH⁻. If the above equation is balanced with integer coefficients, the value of z is:
 

Correct Answer: 8
View Solution

Question 90:

The mass of sodium acetate (CH3COONa) required to prepare 250 mL of 0.35 M aqueous solution is (in grams). (Molar mass of CH3COONa is 82.02 g/mol)
 

Correct Answer: 7
View Solution


Also Check:

JEE Main 2024 Jan 31 Shift 2 Question Paper by Coaching Institute

Coaching Institutes Question Paper with Solutions PDF
Aakash BYJUs Download PDF
Reliable Institute Physics
Chemistry
Resonance Physics
Chemistry
Maths
Vedantu Download PDF
Sri Chaitanya To be updated
FIIT JEE To be updated

JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 2 2024 Paper Analysis

JEE Main 2024 Jan 31 Shift 2 paper analysis for B.E./ B.Tech is updated here with details on the difficulty level of the exam, topics with the highest weightage in the exam, section-wise difficulty level, etc. after the conclusion of the exam.

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Pattern

Feature Question Paper Pattern
Examination Mode Computer-based Test
Exam Language 13 languages (English, Hindi, Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Marathi, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil, Telugu, and Urdu)
Number of Sections Three- Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics
Exam Duration 3 hours
Sectional Time Limit None
Total Marks 300 marks
Total Number of Questions Asked 90 Questions
Total Number of Questions to be Answered 75 questions
Type of Questions MCQs and Numerical Answer Type Questions
Section-wise Number of Questions Physics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Chemistry- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type,
Mathematics- 20 MCQs and 10 numerical type
Marking Scheme +4 for each correct answer
Negative Marking -1 for each incorrect answer

Read More:

JEE Main 2024 Question Paper Session 1 (January)

Those appearing for JEE Main 2024 can use the links below to practice and keep track of their exam preparation level by attempting the shift-wise JEE Main 2024 question paper provided below.

Exam Date and Shift Question Paper PDF
JEE Main 24 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 27 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 29 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 30 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 31 Jan Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 1 2024 Question Paper Check Here
JEE Main 1 Feb Shift 2 2024 Question Paper Check Here

JEE Main Previous Year Question Paper

JEE Main Questions

  • 1.
    CrCl\(_3\).xNH\(_3\) can exist as a complex. 0.1 molal aqueous solution of this complex shows a depression in freezing point of 0.558°C. Assuming 100\% ionization of this complex and coordination number of Cr is 6, the complex will be:

      • [Cr(NH\(_3\))\(_6\)]Cl\(_3\)
      • [Cr(NH\(_3\))\(_4\)]Cl\(_2\)Cl
      • [Cr(NH\(_3\))\(_5\)]Cl\(_2\)
      • [Cr(NH\(_3\))\(_3\)]Cl\(_3\)

    • 2.
      An electric dipole of dipole moment \(6 \times 10^{-6} \) Cm is placed in a uniform electric field of magnitude \(10^6\) V/m. Initially, the dipole moment is parallel to the electric field. The work that needs to be done on the dipole to make its dipole moment opposite to the field will be ________________________ J.


        • 3.
          If \[ f(x) = \int \frac{1}{x^{1/4} (1 + x^{1/4})} \, dx, \quad f(0) = -6, { then } f(1) { is equal to:} \]

            •  \( 4 (\log 2 - 2) \) 

               

            • \( \log 2 + 2 \)

            • \( 2 - \log 2 \)
            • \( 4 (\log 2 + 2) \)

          • 4.
            A light source of wavelength \( \lambda \) illuminates a metal surface, and electrons are ejected with a maximum kinetic energy of 2 eV. If the same surface is illuminated by a light source of wavelength \( \frac{\lambda}{2} \), then the maximum kinetic energy of ejected electrons will be (The work function of the metal is 1 eV).

              • 6 eV
              • 5 eV
              • 2 eV
              • 3 eV

            • 5.
              Let \( P_n = \alpha^n + \beta^n \), \( P_{10} = 123 \), \( P_9 = 76 \), \( P_8 = 47 \), and \( P_1 = 1 \). The quadratic equation whose roots are \( \frac{1}{\alpha} \) and \( \frac{1}{\beta} \) is:

                • \( x^2 + x - 1 = 0 \)
                • \( x^2 - 2x + 1 = 0 \)
                • \( x^2 + x - 2 = 0 \)
                • \( x^2 - x - 2 = 0 \)

              • 6.
                Let \( [x] \) denote the greatest integer function, and let \( m \) and \( n \) respectively be the numbers of the points, where the function \( f(x) = [x] + |x - 2| \), \( -2<x<3 \), is not continuous and not differentiable. Then \( m + n \) is equal to:

                  • \( 9 \)
                  • \( 8 \)
                  • \( 7 \)
                  • \( 6 \)

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