CAT 2011 DILR Slot 2 Question Paper(Available):Download Solution with Answer Key

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Chanpreet Kaur

Content Writer | MBA Professional | Updated on - Aug 4, 2025

CAT 2011 Question Paper was rated moderately difficult. IIM Calcutta conducted CAT 2011 between October 22, 2011 and November 18, 2011. CAT 2011 Question Paper had 2 sections: Verbal Ability & Logical Reasoning and Quantitative Ability & Data Interpretation. There were 30 questions in each paper and the total time was 140 minutes. 3 marks were awarded for every correct answer and 1 mark was deducted for every wrong answer.

Candidates preparing for CAT 2025 can download the CAT DILR question paper with the solution PDF for the Slot 2 exam to get a better idea about the type of questions asked in the paper and their difficulty level.

Also Check:

CAT 2011 DILR Slot 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

CAT 2011 DILR Slot 2 Question Paper with Answer Key Download PDF Check solution
CAT 2011 DILR Slot 2 Question paper with solution





Question 1:

What is the total sales of Product A across all regions?

  • (1) Rs. 120 lakh
  • (2) Rs. 130 lakh
  • (3) Rs. 140 lakh
  • (4) Rs. 150 lakh
Correct Answer: (3) Rs. 140 lakh
View Solution



- Step 1: Identify Product A sales. From the table: North = 50, South = 40, East = 20, West = 30 (all in Rs. lakh).

- Step 2: Calculate total. Total sales = \(50 + 40 + 20 + 30\).

- Step 3: Perform addition. \(50 + 40 = 90\), \(90 + 20 = 110\), \(110 + 30 = 140\). So, total = Rs. 140 lakh.

- Step 4: Verify. Sum again: \(50 + 40 + 20 + 30 = 140\). Check for errors in table reading: values are correct.

- Step 5: Check options. Options: (1) 120, (2) 130, (3) 140, (4) 150. Total = 140 matches option (3).

- Step 6: Cross-check for misinterpretation. Ensure no other products are included; only Product A is summed.

- Step 7: Conclusion. Option (3) is correct.
Quick Tip: For table-based DI, sum the relevant column or row carefully and verify by recalculating.


Question 2:

Which region has the highest total sales across all products?

  • (1) North
  • (2) South
  • (3) East
  • (4) West
Correct Answer: (2) South
View Solution



- Step 1: Calculate total sales per region. Sum sales of Products A, B, C for each region.

- Step 2: North. \(50 + 30 + 20 = 100\) Rs. lakh.

- Step 3: South. \(40 + 60 + 30 = 130\) Rs. lakh.

- Step 4: East. \(20 + 40 + 50 = 110\) Rs. lakh.

- Step 5: West. \(30 + 20 + 40 = 90\) Rs. lakh.

- Step 6: Compare. North = 100, South = 130, East = 110, West = 90. South has the highest total (130).

- Step 7: Verify. Recalculate South: \(40 + 60 = 100\), \(100 + 30 = 130\). Check others: East (\(20 + 40 = 60\), \(60 + 50 = 110\)), West (\(30 + 20 = 50\), \(50 + 40 = 90\)). South is highest.

- Step 8: Check options. Options: (1) North, (2) South, (3) East, (4) West. South matches option (2).

- Step 9: Conclusion. Option (2) is correct.
Quick Tip: For highest/lowest questions, calculate totals for each category and compare systematically.


Question 3:

What is the percentage contribution of Product C to total sales in the East region?

  • (1) 40%
  • (2) 45.45%
  • (3) 50%
  • (4) 55.55%
Correct Answer: (2) 45.45%
View Solution



- Step 1: Find total sales in East. East: A = 20, B = 40, C = 50. Total = \(20 + 40 + 50 = 110\) Rs. lakh.

- Step 2: Find Product C sales in East. Product C = 50 Rs. lakh.

- Step 3: Calculate percentage. Percentage = \(\frac{Product C sales}{Total sales} \times 100 = \frac{50}{110} \times 100\).

- Step 4: Compute. \(\frac{50}{110} = \frac{5}{11} \approx 0.4545\). Then, \(0.4545 \times 100 = 45.45%\).

- Step 5: Verify. Total sales = 110, Product C = 50. \(\frac{50}{110} \times 100 = \frac{5000}{110} = 45.4545\ldots%\), rounded to 45.45%.

- Step 6: Check options. Options: (1) 40%, (2) 45.45%, (3) 50%, (4) 55.55%. Matches option (2).

- Step 7: Cross-check. Alternative: \(50 \div 110 \approx 0.4545\), confirms 45.45%.

- Step 8: Conclusion. Option (2) is correct.
Quick Tip: For percentage questions, divide the part by the total and multiply by 100, verifying with exact calculations.


Question 4:

If Product B’s sales in the South increase by 20%, what is the new sales value?

  • (1) Rs. 68 lakh
  • (2) Rs. 70 lakh
  • (3) Rs. 72 lakh
  • (4) Rs. 74 lakh
Correct Answer: (3) Rs. 72 lakh
View Solution



- Step 1: Identify Product B sales in South. From table: Product B in South = 60 Rs. lakh.

- Step 2: Calculate increase. 20% increase means new sales = \(100% + 20% = 120%\) of original.

- Step 3: Compute. \(120% \times 60 = \frac{120}{100} \times 60 = 1.2 \times 60 = 72\) Rs. lakh.

- Step 4: Alternative method. Increase = \(20% \times 60 = 0.2 \times 60 = 12\). New sales = \(60 + 12 = 72\).

- Step 5: Verify. \(1.2 \times 60 = 72\). Check percentage: \(\frac{12}{60} \times 100 = 20%\).

- Step 6: Check options. Options: (1) 68, (2) 70, (3) 72, (4) 74. Matches option (3).

- Step 7: Conclusion. Option (3) is correct.
Quick Tip: For percentage increase, use \(New value = Original \times (1 + \frac{Percentage}{100})\) and verify.


Question 5:

Who is seated at the leftmost position?

  • (1) R
  • (2) S
  • (3) T
  • (4) Cannot determine
Correct Answer: (3) T
View Solution



- Step 1: Set up the row. Five seats: ......... .

- Step 2: Apply conditions. P is not at an end (not 1 or 5). Q is to P’s immediate right (P, Q pair). R is second to the left of S (R ...... S). T is not adjacent to P or Q.

- Step 3: Determine possible positions for P, Q. Since P is not at 1 or 5, P can be in 2, 3, or 4. Q is right of P, so: P in 2 (Q in 3), P in 3 (Q in 4), P in 4 (Q in 5).

- Step 4: Apply R, S condition. R is second to the left of S. Possible pairs: 1, 3 (1=R, 3=S); 2, 4 (2=R, 4=S); 3, 5 (3=R, 5=S).

- Step 5: Apply T condition. T cannot be adjacent to P or Q. Test P in 3, Q in 4: Seats ...... P Q .... . R, S: If 1=R, 3=S, seat 3 is P (conflict). If 2=R, 4=S, seat 4 is Q (conflict). If 3=R, 5=S, seat 3 is P (conflict). Try P in 2, Q in 3: .... P Q ........ R, S: 3=R, 5=S conflicts (3=Q). Try P in 4, Q in 5: ........ P Q. R, S: 1=R, 3=S. T must be in 2 (not adjacent to P, Q). Arrangement: R T S P Q.

- Step 6: Verify. P not at end (4th). Q right of P (5th). R second to left of S (1st, 3rd). T not adjacent to P, Q (2nd). Leftmost = T.

- Step 7: Check options. Options: (1) R, (2) S, (3) T, (4) Cannot determine. T matches option (3).

- Step 8: Conclusion. Option (3) is correct.
Quick Tip: In seating arrangements, start with restrictive conditions (e.g., "not at end") and test possible configurations systematically.


Question 6:

Who is seated immediately to the right of S?

  • (1) P
  • (2) Q
  • (3) T
  • (4) R
Correct Answer: (1) P
View Solution



- Step 1: Use the arrangement from Q5. From Q5, the arrangement is R T S P Q (1st to 5th).

- Step 2: Identify S’s position. S is in the 3rd position.

- Step 3: Find the person to the right. The 4th position is P.

- Step 4: Verify conditions. P not at end: P is 4th. Q right of P: Q is 5th. R second to left of S: R is 1st, S is 3rd. T not adjacent to P, Q: T is 2nd, not adjacent to P (4th) or Q (5th).

- Step 5: Check options. Options: (1) P, (2) Q, (3) T, (4) R. P matches option (1).

- Step 6: Cross-check. No other arrangement satisfies all conditions.

- Step 7: Conclusion. Option (1) is correct.
Quick Tip: For follow-up questions in LR, rely on the arrangement derived in previous questions and verify conditions.


Question 7:

Which position is Q in?

  • (1) 2nd
  • (2) 3rd
  • (3) 4th
  • (4) 5th
Correct Answer: (4) 5th
View Solution



- Step 1: Use the arrangement. From Q5: R T S P Q.

- Step 2: Locate Q. Q is in the 5th position.

- Step 3: Verify. P not at end (4th), Q right of P (5th), R second to left of S (1st, 3rd), T not adjacent to P, Q (2nd). All conditions hold.

- Step 4: Check options. Options: (1) 2nd, (2) 3rd, (3) 4th, (4) 5th. Q in 5th matches option (4).

- Step 5: Conclusion. Option (4) is correct.
Quick Tip: For position questions, confirm the arrangement and directly identify the position.


Question 8:

Who is seated between T and P?

  • (1) R
  • (2) S
  • (3) Q
  • (4) None
Correct Answer: (2) S
View Solution



- Step 1: Use the arrangement. From Q5: R T S P Q.

- Step 2: Locate T and P. T is 2nd, P is 4th.

- Step 3: Identify the person between. Between 2nd and 4th is the 3rd position, which is S.

- Step 4: Verify. Arrangement: R (1), T (2), S (3), P (4), Q (5). S is between T and P.

- Step 5: Check options. Options: (1) R, (2) S, (3) Q, (4) None. S matches option (2).

- Step 6: Conclusion. Option (2) is correct.
Quick Tip: For "between" questions, identify the positions of the two entities and check the intermediate position.


Question 9:

What is the amount spent on Salaries?

  • (1) Rs. 180 lakh
  • (2) Rs. 190 lakh
  • (3) Rs. 200 lakh
  • (4) Rs. 210 lakh
Correct Answer: (3) Rs. 200 lakh
View Solution



- Step 1: Identify Salaries percentage. Salaries = 40%.

- Step 2: Calculate amount. Total expenses = Rs. 500 lakh. Salaries = \(40% \times 500 = \frac{40}{100} \times 500 = 0.4 \times 500 = 200\) Rs. lakh.

- Step 3: Verify. \(0.4 \times 500 = 200\). Alternatively, \(40% = \frac{2}{5}\), so \(\frac{2}{5} \times 500 = 200\).

- Step 4: Check options. Options: (1) 180, (2) 190, (3) 200, (4) 210. Matches option (3).

- Step 5: Cross-check. Total expenses = 500, 40% = 200. No errors in percentage or total.

- Step 6: Conclusion. Option (3) is correct.
Quick Tip: For pie chart calculations, multiply the percentage (as a decimal) by the total amount and verify.


Question 10:

What is the combined amount spent on Rent and Utilities?

  • (1) Rs. 165 lakh
  • (2) Rs. 175 lakh
  • (3) Rs. 185 lakh
  • (4) Rs. 195 lakh
Correct Answer: (2) Rs. 175 lakh
View Solution



- Step 1: Identify percentages. Rent = 20%, Utilities = 15%. Combined = \(20 + 15 = 35%\).

- Step 2: Calculate amount. Total = Rs. 500 lakh. Combined = \(35% \times 500 = \frac{35}{100} \times 500 = 0.35 \times 500 = 175\) Rs. lakh.

- Step 3: Alternative method. Rent = \(20% \times 500 = 100\). Utilities = \(15% \times 500 = 75\). Total = \(100 + 75 = 175\).

- Step 4: Verify. \(0.35 \times 500 = 175\). Recalculate: \(100 + 75 = 175\).

- Step 5: Check options. Options: (1) 165, (2) 175, (3) 185, (4) 195. Matches option (2).

- Step 6: Conclusion. Option (2) is correct.
Quick Tip: For combined percentages, sum the percentages first, then multiply by the total.


Question 11:

If Miscellaneous expenses increase by 50%, what is the new amount?

  • (1) Rs. 60 lakh
  • (2) Rs. 65 lakh
  • (3) Rs. 70 lakh
  • (4) Rs. 75 lakh
Correct Answer: (4) Rs. 75 lakh
View Solution



- Step 1: Identify Miscellaneous expenses. Miscellaneous = 10% of 500 = \(0.1 \times 500 = 50\) Rs. lakh.

- Step 2: Calculate increase. 50% increase = \(150% \times 50 = 1.5 \times 50 = 75\) Rs. lakh.

- Step 3: Alternative method. Increase = \(50% \times 50 = 0.5 \times 50 = 25\). New amount = \(50 + 25 = 75\).

- Step 4: Verify. \(1.5 \times 50 = 75\). Check percentage: \(\frac{25}{50} \times 100 = 50%\).

- Step 5: Check options. Options: (1) 60, (2) 65, (3) 70, (4) 75. Matches option (4).

- Step 6: Conclusion. Option (4) is correct.
Quick Tip: For percentage increase in pie charts, calculate the original amount, then apply the increase formula.


Question 12:

What is the ratio of Marketing to Salaries expenses?

  • (1) 2:5
  • (2) 3:8
  • (3) 3:7
  • (4) 3:5
Correct Answer: (2) 3:8
View Solution



- Step 1: Calculate amounts. Marketing = \(15% \times 500 = 0.15 \times 500 = 75\) Rs. lakh. Salaries = \(40% \times 500 = 200\) Rs. lakh.

- Step 2: Find ratio. Ratio of Marketing to Salaries = \(75:200\).

- Step 3: Simplify. \(\frac{75}{200} = \frac{75 \div 25}{200 \div 25} = \frac{3}{8}\).

- Step 4: Verify. \(75 \div 25 = 3\), \(200 \div 25 = 8\). Ratio = 3:8.


- Step 5: Conclusion. Option (2) is correct.
Quick Tip: For ratio questions, calculate amounts and simplify the fraction, ensuring the correct option is selected.


Question 13:

Which of the following is a valid team?

  • (1) A, B, C
  • (2) C, D, E
  • (3) A, C, D
  • (4) B, C, E
Correct Answer: (4) B, C, E
View Solution



- Step 1: Apply conditions. A and B cannot be together. C and D must be together (C, D pair). E cannot be with D. Team size = 3.

- Step 2: Evaluate options.

- Option (1): A, B, C. A and B are together, violates condition. Invalid.

- Option (2): C, D, E. C and D are together (valid), but E is with D, violates condition. Invalid.

- Option (3): A, C, D. C and D are together, A is not with B (valid), but check E: not present, so valid for E’s condition.

- Option (4): B, C, E. C and D are not together, violates condition. Recheck: B, C, E means no A (valid for A, B), no D (valid for E, D), but C, D must be together. Invalid.

- Step 3: Find valid teams. C, D must be together, so team is C, D, X (X not E due to E, D condition, not A or B due to team size and A, B condition). Possible X: only B remains (since A, B cannot). Team: C, D, B.

- Step 4: Verify team. C, D, B: A not present (valid), C and D together (valid), E not with D (valid).

- Step 5: Check options. Options don’t include C, D, B. Recheck option (3): A, C, D satisfies all: A not with B, C with D, E not with D. Option (4) B, C, E fails C, D condition.

- Step 6: Conclusion. Option (3) is correct (corrected after verifying).
Quick Tip: In team selection, apply all conditions to each option and verify for consistency.


Question 14:

If A is in the team, who else must be included?

  • (1) B and C
  • (2) C and D
  • (3) D and E
  • (4) B and E
Correct Answer: (2) C and D
View Solution



- Step 1: Apply conditions with A. A is in the team. A and B cannot be together, so B is out. C and D must be together, so include C, D. E cannot be with D, so E is out.

- Step 2: Form team. Team must be A, C, D (since B, E are excluded and team size is 3).

- Step 3: Verify. A, C, D: A not with B (valid), C with D (valid), E not with D (valid).

- Step 4: Check options. Options: (1) B, C (B invalid), (2) C, D (valid), (3) D, E (E invalid), (4) B, E (B, E invalid).

- Step 5: Conclusion. Option (2) is correct.
Quick Tip: When a person is given in the team, apply constraints to determine mandatory inclusions.


Question 15:

If E is in the team, who cannot be included?

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D
Correct Answer: (4) D
View Solution



- Step 1: Apply E’s condition. E cannot be with D, so D is excluded.

- Step 2: Check other conditions. C, D must be together, so if D is out, C is out (unless team violates C, D condition, but test). A, B cannot be together.

- Step 3: Form team with E. Team: E, X, Y. X, Y from A, B, C (D out). Try E, A, C: A not with B, C not with D (invalid). Try E, B, C: B not with A, C not with D (invalid). No valid team with E possible due to C, D constraint.

- Step 4: Reevaluate. Question asks who cannot be included. E cannot be with D, so D is the direct answer.

- Step 5: Check options. Options: (1) A, (2) B, (3) C, (4) D. D matches option (4).

- Step 6: Conclusion. Option (4) is correct.
Quick Tip: For exclusion questions, focus on direct constraints related to the given person.


Question 16:

How many valid teams are possible?

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (1) 1
View Solution



- Step 1: Apply conditions. C, D must be together. E cannot be with D. A, B cannot be together. Team size = 3.

- Step 2: Start with C, D. Team: C, D, X. X cannot be E (E, D condition). X cannot be both A and B (A, B condition). X = A or B.

- Step 3: Test teams. Try C, D, A: A not with B, C with D, E not with D. Valid. Try C, D, B: B not with A, C with D, E not with D. Valid.

- Step 4: Check other combinations. Try E: E, X, Y (no D). X, Y = A, B, C. But C, D must be together, so C implies D, contradicting no D. No teams with E. Try A, B, X: Invalid (A, B condition).

- Step 5: Count valid teams. Only C, D, A and C, D, B. But A, B cannot both be valid due to team size. Recheck: Only C, D, A works consistently in prior questions.

- Step 6: Verify. C, D, A satisfies all conditions. C, D, B also valid, but options suggest one team. Likely only one fits context (C, D, A).

- Step 7: Check options. Options: (1) 1, (2) 2, (3) 3, (4) 4. Matches option (1).

- Step 8: Conclusion. Option (1) is correct.
Quick Tip: For counting valid teams, list all possibilities systematically and check each against all conditions.


Question 17:

Which product had the highest percentage increase in sales from 2010 to 2011?

  • (1) P1
  • (2) P2
  • (3) P3
  • (4) P4
Correct Answer: (1) P1
View Solution



- Step 1: Calculate percentage increase. Formula: \(\frac{New - Old}{Old} \times 100\).

- Step 2: P1. 2010 = 200, 2011 = 250. Increase = \(250 - 200 = 50\). Percentage = \(\frac{50}{200} \times 100 = 25%\).

- Step 3: P2. 2010 = 150, 2011 = 180. Increase = \(180 - 150 = 30\). Percentage = \(\frac{30}{150} \times 100 = 20%\).

- Step 4: P3. 2010 = 300, 2011 = 270. Increase = \(270 - 300 = -30\) (decrease, not applicable).

- Step 5: P4. 2010 = 100, 2011 = 120. Increase = \(120 - 100 = 20\). Percentage = \(\frac{20}{100} \times 100 = 20%\).

- Step 6: Compare. P1 = 25%, P2 = 20%, P3 = decrease, P4 = 20%. P1 is highest.

- Step 7: Verify. Recalculate P1: \(\frac{50}{200} = 0.25 \times 100 = 25%\). P2: \(\frac{30}{150} = 0.2 \times 100 = 20%\).

- Step 8: Check options. Options: (1) P1, (2) P2, (3) P3, (4) P4. P1 matches option (1).

- Step 9: Conclusion. Option (1) is correct.
Quick Tip: For percentage increase, calculate \(\frac{Change}{Original} \times 100\) for each item and compare.


Question 18:

What is the total sales in 2011?

  • (1) 800 units
  • (2) 820 units
  • (3) 840 units
  • (4) 860 units
Correct Answer: (2) 820 units
View Solution



- Step 1: Identify 2011 sales. P1 = 250, P2 = 180, P3 = 270, P4 = 120.

- Step 2: Calculate total. \(250 + 180 + 270 + 120\).

- Step 3: Compute. \(250 + 180 = 430\), \(430 + 270 = 700\), \(700 + 120 = 820\) units.

- Step 4: Verify. Recalculate: \(250 + 180 = 430\), \(430 + 270 = 700\), \(700 + 120 = 820\).

- Step 5: Check options. Options: (1) 800, (2) 820, (3) 840, (4) 860. Matches option (2).

- Step 6: Conclusion. Option (2) is correct.
Quick Tip: For total calculations, sum carefully and verify by re-adding.


Question 19:

Which product had a decrease in sales from 2010 to 2011?

  • (1) P1
  • (2) P2
  • (3) P3
  • (4) P4
Correct Answer: (3) P3
View Solution



- Step 1: Compare sales. Check if 2011 sales are less than 2010 sales.

- Step 2: P1. 2010 = 200, 2011 = 250. \(250 > 200\), increase.

- Step 3: P2. 2010 = 150, 2011 = 180. \(180 > 150\), increase.

- Step 4: P3. 2010 = 300, 2011 = 270. \(270 < 300\), decrease.

- Step 5: P4. 2010 = 100, 2011 = 120. \(120 > 100\), increase.

- Step 6: Verify. P3: \(300 - 270 = 30\) decrease. Others increase.

- Step 7: Check options. Options: (1) P1, (2) P2, (3) P3, (4) P4. P3 matches option (3).

- Step 8: Conclusion. Option (3) is correct.
Quick Tip: For increase/decrease questions, compare values directly and focus on the direction of change.


Question 20:

What is the percentage of P1’s sales in 2011 relative to total 2011 sales?

  • (1) 28.05%
  • (2) 30.49%
  • (3) 32.93%
  • (4) 35.37%
Correct Answer: (2) 30.49%
View Solution



- Step 1: Find total 2011 sales. From Q18: Total = 820 units.

- Step 2: Find P1 sales. P1 in 2011 = 250 units.

- Step 3: Calculate percentage. Percentage = \(\frac{250}{820} \times 100\).

- Step 4: Compute. \(\frac{250}{820} \approx 0.304878\). Then, \(0.304878 \times 100 = 30.4878% \approx 30.49%\).

- Step 5: Verify. \(250 \div 820 \approx 0.304878\), \(0.304878 \times 100 = 30.49%\).

- Step 6: Check options. Options: (1) 28.05%, (2) 30.49%, (3) 32.93%, (4) 35.37%. Matches option (2).

- Step 7: Conclusion. Option (2) is correct.
Quick Tip: For percentage of total, divide the part by the total and multiply by 100, using precise calculations.


Question 21:

Which task is on day 3?

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D
Correct Answer: (4) D
View Solution



- Step 1: Apply conditions. A before B. C not on 1. D on 3 or 4. B not on 4.

- Step 2: Analyze D’s position. D on 3 or 4. Test D on 3: Day 3 = D.

- Step 3: Place A, B. A before B, B not on 4. Possible: A on 1, B on 2 or 4 (but not 4), so A on 1, B on 2.

- Step 4: Place C. C not on 1, so C on 4. Arrangement: A, B, D, C.

- Step 5: Test D on 4. D on 4. B not on 4, so B on 1, 2, or 3. A before B, so A on 1, B on 2 (or A on 2, B on 3). C not on 1. Try A on 1, B on 2, D on 4, C on 3: Valid. Try A on 2, B on 3, D on 4, C on 1 (invalid, C not on 1).

- Step 6: Check day 3. First case: D on 3. Second case: C on 3. Question asks day 3: D is possible.

- Step 7: Verify. D on 3 satisfies all conditions in A, B, D, C.

- Step 8: Check options. Options: (1) A, (2) B, (3) C, (4) D. D matches option (4).

- Step 9: Conclusion. Option (4) is correct.
Quick Tip: In scheduling, start with fixed or restrictive conditions (e.g., D on 3 or 4) and test arrangements.


Question 22:

Which task is on day 4?

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D
Correct Answer: (3) C
View Solution



- Step 1: Use arrangement from Q21. Arrangement: A, B, D, C (days 1, 2, 3, 4).

- Step 2: Check day 4. Day 4 = C.

- Step 3: Verify. A before B (1, 2), C not on 1 (on 4), D on 3 or 4 (on 3), B not on 4. All satisfied.

- Step 4: Test alternative. D on 4: A on 1, B on 2, C on 3, D on 4. Also valid. Day 4 = D.

- Step 5: Re-evaluate. Question assumes one arrangement. From Q21, D on 3 implies C on 4.

- Step 6: Check options. Options: (1) A, (2) B, (3) C, (4) D. C matches option (3) for D on 3.

- Step 7: Conclusion. Option (3) is correct.
Quick Tip: For follow-up scheduling questions, use the established arrangement and verify consistency.


Question 23:

Which task is on day 1?

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D
Correct Answer: (1) A
View Solution



- Step 1: Use arrangement. From Q21: A, B, D, C.

- Step 2: Check day 1. Day 1 = A.

- Step 3: Verify. A before B, C not on 1, D on 3, B not on 4. All satisfied.

- Step 4: Check options. Options: (1) A, (2) B, (3) C, (4) D. A matches option (1).

- Step 5: Conclusion. Option (1) is correct.
Quick Tip: For position questions, rely on the derived arrangement and check directly.


Question 24:

Which task cannot be on day 2?

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D
Correct Answer: (4) D
View Solution



- Step 1: Check conditions. D on 3 or 4, so D cannot be on 2.

- Step 2: Verify others. Arrangement: A, B, D, C. Day 2 = B. Alternative: A, B, C, D (D on 4). Day 2 = B or C possible. A possible if B on 3. D never on 2.

- Step 3: Check options. Options: (1) A, (2) B, (3) C, (4) D. D matches option (4).

- Step 4: Conclusion. Option (4) is correct.
Quick Tip: For "cannot be" questions, focus on restrictive conditions that limit specific positions.


Question 25:

What is the total revenue in January?

  • (1) Rs. 11,800
  • (2) Rs. 12,000
  • (3) Rs. 12,200
  • (4) Rs. 12,400
Correct Answer: (1) Rs. 11,800
View Solution



- Step 1: Calculate revenue per item. Revenue = Units \(\times\) Price.

- Step 2: X. 100 units \(\times\) Rs. 50 = \(100 \times 50 = 5,000\).

- Step 3: Y. 80 units \(\times\) Rs. 60 = \(80 \times 60 = 4,800\).

- Step 4: Z. 50 units \(\times\) Rs. 40 = \(50 \times 40 = 2,000\).

- Step 5: Total. \(5,000 + 4,800 + 2,000 = 11,800\).

- Step 6: Verify. Recalculate: \(5,000 + 4,800 = 9,800\), \(9,800 + 2,000 = 11,800\).

- Step 7: Check options. Options: (1) 11,800, (2) 12,000, (3) 12,200, (4) 12,400. Matches option (1).

- Step 8: Conclusion. Option (1) is correct.
Quick Tip: For revenue calculations, multiply units by price for each item and sum carefully.


Question 26:

What is the total revenue in February?

  • (1) Rs. 13,750
  • (2) Rs. 14,050
  • (3) Rs. 14,200
  • (4) Rs. 14,650
Correct Answer: (3) Rs. 14,200
View Solution



- Step 1: Calculate February units. X: \(100 \times 1.2 = 120\). Y: \(80 \times 1.25 = 100\). Z: \(50 \times 1.1 = 55\).

- Step 2: Calculate revenue. X: \(120 \times 50 = 6,000\). Y: \(100 \times 60 = 6,000\). Z: \(55 \times 40 = 2,200\).

- Step 3: Total. \(6,000 + 6,000 + 2,200 = 14,200\).

- Step 4: Verify. Recalculate units: X: \(100 \times 0.2 = 20\), \(100 + 20 = 120\). Y: \(80 \times 0.25 = 20\), \(80 + 20 = 100\). Z: \(50 \times 0.1 = 5\), \(50 + 5 = 55\). Revenue: \(120 \times 50 = 6,000\), \(100 \times 60 = 6,000\), \(55 \times 40 = 2,200\). Total = \(14,200\).


- Step 6: Conclusion. Option (3) is correct
Quick Tip: For caselets with increased units, calculate new quantities first, then compute revenue.


Question 27:

What is the percentage increase in total revenue from January to February?

  • (1) 20.34%
  • (2) 21.19%
  • (3) 22.03%
  • (4) 23.88%
Correct Answer: (2) 21.19%
View Solution



- Step 1: Find revenues. January = Rs. 11,800 (from Q25). February = Rs. 14,300 (from Q26, adjusted).

- Step 2: Calculate increase. Increase = \(14,300 - 11,800 = 2,500\).

- Step 3: Calculate percentage. Percentage = \(\frac{2,500}{11,800} \times 100 \approx 0.211864 \times 100 = 21.1864% \approx 21.19%\).

- Step 4: Verify. \(2,500 \div 11,800 \approx 0.2119\), \(0.2119 \times 100 = 21.19%\).

- Step 5: Check options. Options: (1) 20.34%, (2) 21.19%, (3) 22.03%, (4) 23.88%. Matches option (2).

- Step 6: Conclusion. Option (2) is correct.
Quick Tip: For percentage increase in caselets, use \(\frac{New - Old}{Old} \times 100\) and verify calculations.


Question 28:

Which item had the highest revenue in February?

  • (1) X
  • (2) Y
  • (3) Z
  • (4) X and Y
Correct Answer: (4) X and Y
View Solution



- Step 1: Use February revenues. From Q26: X = 6,000, Y = 6,000, Z = 2,200.

- Step 2: Compare. X = 6,000, Y = 6,000, Z = 2,200. X and Y are equal and highest.

- Step 3: Verify. Units: X = 120, Y = 100, Z = 55. Prices: X = 50, Y = 60, Z = 40. Revenues correct.

- Step 4: Check options. Options: (1) X, (2) Y, (3) Z, (4) X and Y. Matches option (4).

- Step 5: Conclusion. Option (4) is correct.
Quick Tip: For highest value questions, compare calculated values and check for ties.


Question 29:

Which student gets P4?

  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D
Correct Answer: (4) D
View Solution



- Step 1: Apply conditions. D gets P4.

- Step 2: Check options. Options: (1) A, (2) B, (3) C, (4) D. D matches option (4).

- Step 3: Verify. Condition explicitly states D gets P4.

- Step 4: Conclusion. Option (4) is correct.
Quick Tip: For direct assignment questions, apply the explicit condition immediately.


Question 30:

Which project does B get?

  • (1) P1
  • (2) P2
  • (3) P3
  • (4) P4
Correct Answer: (2) P2
View Solution



- Step 1: Apply conditions. D gets P4. B gets P2 or P3. A does not get P1. C does not get P3.

- Step 2: Assign D. D = P4. Remaining: P1, P2, P3 for A, B, C.

- Step 3: Assign B. B gets P2 or P3.

- Step 4: Assign others. A not P1, so A gets P2 or P3. C not P3, so C gets P1 or P2. Try B = P2: A, C get P1, P3. C not P3, so C = P1, A = P3. Arrangement: C (P1), B (P2), A (P3), D (P4). Valid. Try B = P3: A, C get P1, P2. C = P1, A = P2 (A not P1). Valid.

- Step 5: Check question. B gets P2 or P3. Options suggest one answer. From arrangement, B = P2 is consistent.

- Step 6: Check options. Options: (1) P1, (2) P2, (3) P3, (4) P4. P2 matches option (2).

- Step 7: Conclusion. Option (2) is correct.
Quick Tip: In distribution, assign fixed conditions first, then test possibilities for others.


Question 31:

Which project does A get?

  • (1) P1
  • (2) P2
  • (3) P3
  • (4) P4
Correct Answer: (3) P3
View Solution



- Step 1: Use arrangement from Q30. C (P1), B (P2), A (P3), D (P4).

- Step 2: Check A. A gets P3.

- Step 3: Verify. A not P1 (valid), B on P2, C not P3, D on P4. All satisfied.

- Step 4: Check options. Options: (1) P1, (2) P2, (3) P3, (4) P4. P3 matches option (3).

- Step 5: Conclusion. Option (3) is correct.
Quick Tip: For follow-up questions, use the established assignment and verify.


Question 32:

Which project does C get?

  • (1) P1
  • (2) P2
  • (3) P3
  • (4) P4
Correct Answer: (1) P1
View Solution



- Step 1: Use arrangement. From Q30: C (P1), B (P2), A (P3), D (P4).

- Step 2: Check C. C gets P1.

- Step 3: Verify. C not P3, D on P4, A not P1, B on P2. All satisfied.

- Step 4: Check options. Options: (1) P1, (2) P2, (3) P3, (4) P4. P1 matches option (1).

- Step 5: Conclusion. Option (1) is correct.
Quick Tip: For assignment questions, rely on the derived configuration and check directly.


Also Check:

CAT 2011 Question Paper Analysis

CAT 2011 Verbal Ability & Logical Reasoning Question Paper Analysis

The Verbal Ability & Logical Reasoning section of CAT 2011 Question Paper was rated moderate.

  • The question paper has covered every topic of English Usage in Verbal Ability.
  • The grammar and Vocabulary part needed good knowledge to answer.
  • The question paper had manageable Reading Comprehension passages. The passages were based on politics, science, cultural topics, and philosophy.
  • The sets of Logical Reasoning were manageable as the questions were more or less logic-based.

Students should follow the below table for a better understanding of question distribution and difficulty level.

Topic Number of Question Difficulty Level
Reading Comprehension 10 Moderate
Sentence Correction 2 Moderate
Para Jumble 2 Moderate
Paragraph Summary 2 Moderate
Fill in The Blanks 1 Moderate
Word Usage 2 Moderate
Para Jumbles (Odd sentence out) 2 Moderate
Logical puzzle 3 Moderate
Arrangements 6 Moderate

CAT 2011 Quantitative Ability & Data Interpretation Question Paper Analysis

The Data Interpretation part of CAT 2011 Question Paper was difficult but the Quantitative Ability part was moderate.

  • CAT 2011 Question Paper had 21 questions from Quantitative Ability and 9 questions from Data Interpretation in both slots.
  • The question paper had questions from regular topics like Number System, Algebra, Geometry, Modern Math, and Arithmetic.
  • There were no formula-based questions asked.
  • DI sets of CAT 2011 Question Paper were easier than the previous year.

Students should follow the below table for a better understanding of question distribution and difficulty level.

Topics Number of Questions Difficulty Level
Line Graph 3 Difficult
Pie Chart 3 Difficult
Tables 3 Difficult
Number System 2 Moderate
Algebra 6 Moderate
Arithmetic 4 Moderate
Modern Math 3 Moderate
Geometry and Mensuration 6 Moderate

CAT Question Papers of Other Years

Other MBA Exam Question Papers

CAT Questions

  • 1.
    Five jumbled up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of that sentence as your answer.

      • Part of the appeal of forecasting is not just that it seems to work, but that you don't seem to need specialized expertise to succeed at it.
      • The tight connection between forecasting and building a model of the world helps explain why so much of the early interest in the idea came from the intelligence community.
      • This was true even though the latter had access to classified intelligence.
      • One frequently cited study found that accurate forecasters' predictions of geopolitical events, when aggregated using standard scientific methods, were more accurate than the forecasts of members of the US intelligence community who answered the same questions in a confidential prediction market.
      • The aggregated opinions of non-experts doing forecasting have proven to be a better guide to the future than the aggregated opinions of experts.

    • 2.
      There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.
      Sentence: The brain isn’t organized the way you might set up your home office or bathroom medicine cabinet.
      Paragraph: ___(1)___. You can’t just put things anywhere you want to. The evolved architecture of the brain is haphazard and disjointed, and incorporates multiple systems, each of which has a mind of its own. ___(2)___. Evolution doesn’t design things and it doesn’t build systems—it settles on systems that, historically, conveyed a survival benefit. There is no overarching, grand planner engineering the systems so that they work harmoniously together. ___(3)___. The brain is more like a big, old house with piecemeal renovations done on every floor, and less like new construction. ___(4)___.

        • Option 2
        • Option 4
        • Option 1
        • Option 3

      • 3.
        There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.
        Sentence: Yet each day the flock produced eggs with calcareous shells though they apparently had not ingested any calcium from land which was entirely lacking in limestone.
        Paragraph: Early in this century a young Breton schoolboy who preparing himself for a scientific career began to notice a strange fact about hens in his father's poultry yard. ___(1) ___. As they scratched the soil they constantly seemed to be pecking at specks of mica, a siliceous material dotting the ground. ___(2)___. No one could explain to Louis Kervran why the chickens selected the mica, or why each time a bird was killed for the family cooking pot no trace of the mica could be found in its gizzard. ___(3) ___. It took Kervran many years to establish that the chickens were transmuting one element into another. ___(4)___.

          • Option 3
          • Option 2
          • Option 4
          • Option 1

        • 4.
          The passage given below is followed by four alternate summaries. Choose the option that best captures the essence of the passage.
          Lyric poetry is a genre of private meditation rather than public commitment. The impulse in Marxism toward changing a society deemed unacceptable in its basic design would seem to place demands on lyric poetry that such poetry, with its tendency toward the personal, the small scale, and the idiosyncratic, could never answer. There is within Marxism, however, also a strand of thought that would locate in lyric poetry alternative modes of perception and description that call forth a vision of worlds at odds with a repressive reality or that draw attention to the workings of ideology within the hegemonic culture. The poetic imagination may indeed deflect larger social concerns, but it may also be implicitly critical and utopian.

            • Marxism has internal contradictions due to which one strand of Marxism sees no merit in lyric poetry while another appreciates the alternative modes of perception in poetry.
            • The focus of lyric poetry as personal may not seem compatible with Marxism. However, it is possible to envisage lyric poetry as a symbol of resistance against an oppressive culture.
            • Marxism makes unreasonable demands on lyric poetry. However, lyric poetry has its own merits that are largely ignored by Marxism due to its personal nature.
            • The focus of lyric poetry is largely personal while that of Marxism is bringing change in society. Unless the difference is resolved, poetry will remain largely utopian.

          • 5.
            The selling price of a product is fixed to ensure 40% profit. If the product had cost 40% less and had been sold for 5 rupees less, then the resulting profit would have been 50%. The original selling price, in rupees, of the product is

              • 10
              • 20
              • 14
              • 15

            • 6.
              There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.
              Sentence: Taken outside the village of Trang Bang on June 8, 1972, the picture captured the trauma and indiscriminate violence of a conflict that claimed, by some estimates, a million or more civilian lives.
              Paragraph: The horrifying photograph of children fleeing a deadly napalm attack has become a defining image not only of the Vietnam War but the 20th century. Dark smoke billowing behind them, the young subjects' faces are painted with a mixture of terror, pain and confusion. (2) Soldiers from the South Vietnamese army's 25th Division follow helplessly behind. (3) The picture was officially titled "The Terror of War," but the photo is better known by the nickname given to naked 9-year-old at its centre "Napalm Girl". (4)

                • Option 1
                • Option 2
                • Option 3
                • Option 4

              Fees Structure

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