CAT 1995 Question Paper (Available):Download Solutions with Answer Key PDF

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Chanpreet Kaur

Content Writer | MBA Professional | Updated on - Aug 7, 2025

CAT 1995 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF is available for download. CAT 1995 Question Paper was a set of 185 questions. A total of 120 minutes or 2 hours were allotted to complete the 185 questions.

  • All the questions were distributed across 4 sections I e. Verbal Ability, Data Interpretation, Problem Solving/ Quant, and Reading Comprehension.

Candidates preparing for CAT 2025 can download the CAT 1995 question paper with the solution PDF to get a better idea about the type of questions asked in the paper and their difficulty level.

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CAT 1995 Question Paper with Solution PDF 

CAT 1995 Question Paper with Answer Key  Download PDF Check Solutions

CAT 1995 Question Paper with Answer Key PDFs

Question 1:

Find the odd word out from the given set:

  • (a) Couple
  • (b) Sever
  • (c) Rend
  • (d) Lacerate
Correct Answer: (a) Couple
View Solution

Question 2:

Find the odd word out from the given set:

  • (a) Quell
  • (b) Ruffle
  • (c) Allay
  • (d) Control
Correct Answer: (b) Ruffle
View Solution

Question 3:

Find the odd word out from the given set:

  • (a) Cease
  • (b) Launch
  • (c) Initiate
  • (d) Commence
Correct Answer: (a) Cease
View Solution

Question 4:

Find the odd word out from the given set:

  • (a) Brink
  • (b) Hub
  • (c) Verge
  • (d) Brim
Correct Answer: (b) Hub
View Solution

Question 5:

Find the odd word out from the given set:

  • (a) Eulogy
  • (b) Panegyric
  • (c) Ignominy
  • (d) Glorification
Correct Answer: (c) Ignominy
View Solution

Question 6:

Find the odd word out from the given set:

  • (a) Detest
  • (b) Abhor
  • (c) Ardour
  • (d) Loathe
Correct Answer: (c) Ardour
View Solution

Question 7:

Find the odd word out from the given set:

  • (a) Adroit
  • (b) Adept
  • (c) Dexterous
  • (d) Awkward
Correct Answer: (d) Awkward
View Solution

Question 8:

Find the odd word out from the given set:

  • (a) Taciturn
  • (b) Reserved
  • (c) Clamorous
  • (d) Silent
Correct Answer: (c) Clamorous
View Solution

Question 9:

Find the odd word out from the given set:

  • (a) Sporadic
  • (b) Frequent
  • (c) Intermittent
  • (d) Scarce
Correct Answer: (b) Frequent
View Solution

Question 10:

Find the odd word out from the given set:

  • (a) Fanatic
  • (b) Zealot
  • (c) Maniac
  • (d) Rational
Correct Answer: (d) Rational
View Solution

Question 11:

Almost all school teachers insist that a student's mother is responsible for the student's conduct as well as his dress. Identify the incorrect part.

  • (a) Almost all school teachers insist that
  • (b) a student's mother
  • (c) is responsible for the student's conduct
  • (d) as well as his dress.
Correct Answer: (d) as well as his dress.
View Solution

Question 12:

In the forthcoming elections, every man and woman must vote for the candidate of their choice. Identify the incorrect part.

  • (a) In the forthcoming elections
  • (b) every man and woman
  • (c) must vote for the candidate
  • (d) of their choice.
Correct Answer: (d) of their choice.
View Solution

Question 13:

If one has to decide about the choice of a career, you should choose that option which is really beneficial. Identify the incorrect part.

  • (a) If one has to decide
  • (b) about the choice of a career
  • (c) you should choose that option
  • (d) which is really beneficial.
Correct Answer: (c) you should choose that option.
View Solution

Question 14:

It is essential that diseases like tuberculosis are detected and treated as early as possible in order to assure a successful cure. Identify the incorrect part.

  • (a) It is essential that diseases like tuberculosis
  • (b) are detected and treated
  • (c) as early as possible in order to
  • (d) assure a successful cure.
Correct Answer: (d) assure a successful cure.
View Solution

Question 15:

The Mumbai police have found the body of a man who they believe to be the prime suspect in a murder case. Identify the incorrect part.

  • (a) The Mumbai police have found
  • (b) the body of a man
  • (c) who they believe to be
  • (d) the prime suspect in a murder case.
Correct Answer: (c) who they believe to be.
View Solution

Question 16:

Limpid : Murky

  • (a) Dazed : Clouded
  • (b) Obscure : Vague
  • (c) Bright : Gloomy
  • (d) Nebulous : Dim
Correct Answer: (c) Bright : Gloomy
View Solution

"Limpid" means clear, and "Murky" means dark or unclear—they are antonyms.
Similarly, "Bright" is the opposite of "Gloomy". The other options are either synonyms or unrelated in meaning. Quick Tip: Identify whether the original pair is a synonym pair, antonym pair, or has a specific relationship before matching.


Question 17:

Ease : Alleviate

  • (a) Hint : Allocative
  • (b) Revolt : Repudiate
  • (c) Collapse : Rise
  • (d) Question : Interrogate
Correct Answer: (d) Question : Interrogate
View Solution

Question 18:

Secret : Clandestine

  • (a) Overt : Furtive
  • (b) Covert : Stealthy
  • (c) Open : Closed
  • (d) News : Rumour
Correct Answer: (b) Covert : Stealthy
View Solution

Question 19:

Drama : Audience

  • (a) Brawl : Vagabonds
  • (b) Game : Spectators
  • (c) Art : Critics
  • (d) Movie : Actors
Correct Answer: (b) Game : Spectators
View Solution

Question 20:

Building : Storey

  • (a) Book : Chapter
  • (b) Sentence : Adjective
  • (c) Tree : Stem
  • (d) Elephant : Tusk
Correct Answer: (a) Book : Chapter
View Solution

Question 21:

Germane : Pertinent

  • (a) Apt : Appropriate
  • (b) Quick : Urgent
  • (c) Dull : Sluggish
  • (d) Excited : Serene
Correct Answer: (d) Excited : Serene
View Solution

"Germane" and "Pertinent" are synonyms, both meaning relevant. Options (a), (b), and (c) also pair synonyms.
However, "Excited" and "Serene" are antonyms, not synonyms. Hence, (d) is the least similar. Quick Tip: Identify the relationship in the original pair (synonym, antonym, part-whole, et(c)) and eliminate the option that breaks the pattern.


Question 22:

Sail : Ship

  • (a) Propeller : Aeroplane
  • (b) Radar : Satellite
  • (c) Hydrogen : Balloon
  • (d) Accelerator : Car
Correct Answer: (b) Radar : Satellite
View Solution

A "Sail" propels a "Ship". Similarly, a "Propeller" propels an "Aeroplane", "Hydrogen" propels a "Balloon", and an "Accelerator" propels a "Car".
A "Radar" does not propel a "Satellite" — it is used for detection and guidance, not movement. Quick Tip: Focus on the functional relationship in analogy questions — here it was 'propels'.


Question 23:

Cosmic : Universe

  • (a) Terrestrial : Earth
  • (b) Lunar : Moon
  • (c) Connubial : Youth
  • (d) Annular : Ring
Correct Answer: (c) Connubial : Youth
View Solution

Question 24:

Canine : Dog

  • (a) Feline : Cat
  • (b) Aquiline : Parrot
  • (c) Serpentine : Cobra
  • (d) Vulpine : Fox
Correct Answer: (b) Aquiline : Parrot
View Solution

"Canine" describes a "Dog", "Feline" describes a "Cat", "Serpentine" describes a "Cobra", and "Vulpine" describes a "Fox".
"Aquiline" refers to an eagle-like shape (especially nose), not a "Parrot", hence it is the odd one. Quick Tip: Many analogy questions are based on animal adjectives — remember them.


Question 25:

Xenophobia : Foreigners

  • (a) Claustrophobia : Height
  • (b) Anglophobia : Englishmen
  • (c) Bibliophobia : Book
  • (d) Hemophobia : Blood
Correct Answer: (a) Claustrophobia : Height
View Solution

"Xenophobia" is a fear or dislike of "Foreigners". "Anglophobia" is dislike of "Englishmen", "Bibliophobia" is dislike of "Books", "Hemophobia" is fear of "Blood".
"Claustrophobia" is fear of enclosed spaces, not "Height" — fear of heights is called "Acrophobia". Quick Tip: Break down Greek/Latin roots to identify meanings — 'phobia' = fear, 'xeno' = foreign, 'claustro' = closed space.


Question 26:

Arrange the following four sentences in a proper sequence to form a coherent paragraph:


(a) Where there is division there must be conflict, not only division between man and woman, but also division on the basis of race, religion and language.

(b) We said the present condition of racial divisions, linguistic divisions has brought out so many wars.

(c) Also we went into the question as to why does this conflict between man and man exist.

(d) May we continue with what we were discussing last evening?

  • (a) ABCD
  • (b) DBCA
  • (c) BCAD
  • (d) BDAC
Correct Answer: (b) DBCA
View Solution

Question 27:

Arrange the following four sentences in a proper sequence to form a coherent paragraph:


(a) No other documents give us so intimate a sense of the tone and temper of the first generation poets.

(b) Part of the interest of the journal is course historical.

(c) And the clues to Wordsworth's creative processes which the journal affords are of decisive significance.

(d) Not even in their own letters do Wordsworth and Coleridge stand so present before us than they do through the references in the journal.

  • (a) BACD
  • (b) BDAC
  • (c) CBAD
  • (d) DABC
Correct Answer: (a) BACD
View Solution

Question 28:

Arrange the following four sentences in a proper sequence to form a coherent paragraph:


(a) These high plans died, slowly but definitively, and were replaced by the dream of a huge work on philosophy.

(b) In doing whatever little he could of the new plan, the poet managed to write speculations on theology, and political theory.

(c) The poet’s huge ambitions included writing a philosophic epic on the origin of evil.

(d) However, not much was done in this regard either, with only fragments being written.

  • (a) ABCD
  • (b) CBAD
  • (c) CDAB
  • (d) CADB
Correct Answer: (b) CBAD
View Solution

Question 29:

Arrange the following four sentences in a proper sequence to form a coherent paragraph:


(a) We can never leave off wondering how that which has ever been should cease to be.

(b) As we advance in life, we acquire a keener sense of the value of time.

(c) Nothing else, indeed, seems to be of any consequence; and we become misers in this sense.

(d) We try to arrest its few last tottering steps, and to make it linger on the brink of the grave.

  • (a) ACDB
  • (b) BCDA
  • (c) BDCA
  • (d) ABCD
Correct Answer: (c) BDCA
View Solution

Question 30:

Arrange the following four sentences in a proper sequence to form a coherent paragraph:


(a) There is no complete knowledge about anything.

(b) Our thinking is the outcome of knowledge, and knowledge is always limite(d)

(c) Knowledge always goes hand in hand with ignorance.

(d) Therefore, our thinking which is born out of knowledge, is always limited under all circumstances.

  • (a) ABCD
  • (b) BCDA
  • (c) ACBD
  • (d) ACDB
Correct Answer: (d) ACDB
View Solution

Question 31:

1. Currency movements can have a dramatic impact on equity returns for foreign investors.

(a) This is not surprising as many developing economies try to peg their exchange rates to the US dollar or to a basket of currencies.

(b) Many developing economies manage to keep exchange rate volatility lower than that in the industrial economies.

(c) India has also gone in for the full float on the current account and abolished the managed exchange rate.

(d) Dramatic exceptions are Argentina, Brazil and Nigeri(a)

6. Another emerging market specific risk is liquidity risk.

  • (a) ADBC
  • (b) CDAB
  • (c) BDAC
  • (d) CABD
Correct Answer: (c) BDAC
View Solution

Question 32:

1. All human beings are aware of the existence of a power greater than that of the mortals — the name given to such a power by individuals is an outcome of birth, education and choice.

(a) This power provides an anchor in times of adversity, difficulty and trouble.

(b) Industrial organisations also contribute to the veneration of this power by participating in activities such as religious ceremonies and festivities organised by the employees.

(c) Their other philanthropic contributions include the construction and maintenance of religious places such as temples or gurdwaras.

(d) Logically, therefore, such a power should be remembered in good times also.

6. The top management/managers should participate in all such events, irrespective of their personal beliefs.

  • (a) ADBC
  • (b) BCAD
  • (c) CADB
  • (d) DACB
Correct Answer: (a) ADBC
View Solution

Question 33:

1. Total forgiveness for a mistake generates a sense of complacency towards target achievement among the employees.

(a) In such a situation the work ethos gets distorted and individuals get a feeling that they can get away with any lapse.

(b) The feeling that they develop is: whether I produce results or not, the management will not punish me or does not have the guts to punish me.

(c) Also, excess laxity damages management credibility, because for a long time, the management has maintained that dysfunctional behaviour will result in punishment, and when something goes wrong, it fails to take specific punitive action.

(d) The severity of the punishment may be reduced, by modifying it, but some action must be taken against the guilty so as to serve as a reminder for all others in the organisation.

6. Moreover, it helps establish the management’s image of being firm, fair and yet human.

  • (a) DCBA
  • (b) BACD
  • (c) DBCA
  • (d) CABD
Correct Answer: (b) BACD
View Solution

Question 34:

1. But the vessel kept going away.

(a) He looked anxiously aroun(d)

(b) There was nothing to see but the water and empty sky.

(c) He could now barely see her funnel and masts when she reappeared on top of a huge wave.

(d) He did not know for what.

6. A breaking wave slapped him in the face, choking him.

  • (a) ADBC
  • (b) ACDB
  • (c) CADB
  • (d) ABCD
Correct Answer: (a) ADBC
View Solution

Question 35:

1. Managers must lead by example; they should not be averse to giving a hand in manual work if require(d)

(a) They should also update their competence to guide their subordinates; this would be possible only if they keep in regular touch with new processes, machines, instruments, gauges, systems and gadgets.

(b) Work must be allocated to different groups and team members in clear, specific terms.

(c) Too much of wall-building is detrimental to the exercise of the 'personal charisma' of the leader whose presence should not be felt only through notices, circulars or memos, but by being seen physically.

(d) Simple, clean living among one's people should be insisted upon.

6. This would mean maintaining an updated organization chart, laying down job descriptions, identifying key result areas, setting personal targets, and above all, monitoring of performance to meet organizational goals.

  • (a) BDAC
  • (b) BCDA
  • (c) ADCB
  • (d) ACDB
Correct Answer: (a) BDAC
View Solution

Question 36:

1. The top management should perceive the true worth of people and only then make friends.

(a) Such 'true friends' are very few and very rare.

(b) Factors such as affluence, riches, outward sophistication and conceptual abilities are not prerequisites for genuine friendship.

(c) Such people must be respected and kept close to the heart.

(d) Business realities call for developing a large circle of acquaintances and contacts; however, all of them will be motivated by their own self-interest and it would be wrong to treat them as genuine friends.

6. There is always a need for real friends to whom one can turn for balanced, unselfish advice, more so when one is caught in a dilemm(a)

  • (a) ABCD
  • (b) ADBC
  • (c) ACDB
  • (d) ACBD
Correct Answer: (b) ADBC
View Solution

Question 37:

1. Managers, especially the successful ones, should guard against ascribing to themselves qualities and attributes which they may not have, or may have in a measure much less than what they think they have.

(a) External appearances can be deceptive.

(b) To initiate action without being in possession of full facts can lead to disastrous results.

(c) Also, one should develop confidants who can be used as sounding boards, in order to check one's own thinking against that of others.

(d) It is also useful to be receptive to feedback about oneself so that a real understanding of the 'self' exists.

6. A false perception can be like wearing coloured glasses — all facts get tainted by the colour and the mind interprets them wrongly to fit into the perception.

  • (a) DCAB
  • (b) BADC
  • (c) DABC
  • (d) BCAD
Correct Answer: (a) DCAB
View Solution

Question 38:

1. Conflicting demands for resources are always voiced by different functions/departments in an organization.

(a) Every manager examines the task entrusted to him and evaluates the resources require(d)

(b) Availability of resources in full measure makes task achievement easy, because it reduces the effort needed to somewhat make-do.

(c) A safety cushion is built into demand for resources, to offset the adverse impact of any cut imposed by the seniors.

(d) This aspect needs to be understood as a reality.

6. Dynamic, energetic, growth-oriented and wise managements are always confronted with the inadequacy of resources with respect to one of the four Ms (men, machines, money and materials) and the two Ts (time and technology).

  • (a) DABC
  • (b) ACBD
  • (c) ABCD
  • (d) BCDA
Correct Answer: (b) ACBD
View Solution

Question 39:

1. Despite the passage of time, a large number of conflicts continue to remain alive, because the wronged parties, in reality or in imagination, wish to take revenge upon each other, thus creating a vicious circle.

(a) At times, managers are called upon to take ruthless decisions in the long-term interests of the organization.

(b) People hurt others, at times knowingly, to teach them a lesson and, at other times, because they lack correct understanding of the other person's stan(d)

(c) The delegation of any power, to any person, is never absolute.

(d) Every ruthless decision will be accepted easily if the situation at the moment of committing the act is objectively analysed, shared openly and discussed rationally.

6. Power is misused; its effects can last only for a while, since employees are bound to confront it some day, more so the talented ones.

  • (a) BCAD
  • (b) ADBC
  • (c) DABC
  • (d) BADC
Correct Answer: (a) BCAD
View Solution

Question 40:

1. Managers need to differentiate among those who commit an error once, those who are repetitively errant but can be corrected, and those who are basically wicke(d)

(a) The persons in this category will resort to sweet-talk and make all sorts of promises on being caught, but, at the first opportunity, will revert to their bad ways.

(b) Managers must take ruthless action against the basically wicked and ensure their separation from the organization at the earliest.

(c) The first category needs to be corrected softly and duly counselled; the second category should be dealt with firmly and duly counselled till they realize the danger of persisting with their errant behaviour.

(d) It is the last category of whom the managers must be most wary.

6. The punishment must be fair and based on the philosophy of giving all the possible opportunities and help prior to taking ruthless action.

  • (a) ADCB
  • (b) CDAB
  • (c) CADB
  • (d) BDAC
Correct Answer: (a) ADCB
View Solution

Question 41:

1. Some bubbies are not dubbles

2. Some dubbles are not bubbles

3. No one who is rubbles is dubbles

4. All dubbles are rubbles

5. Some dubbles are bubbles

6. Some who are rubbles are not bubbles

  • (a) 136
  • (b) 456
  • (c) 123
  • (d) 246
Correct Answer: (a) 136
View Solution

Question 42:

1. Some men are bad

2. All men are sad

3. All bad things are men

4. All bad things are sad

5. Some sad things are men

6. Some sad things are bad

  • (a) 165
  • (b) 236
  • (c) 241
  • (d) 235
Correct Answer: (d) 235
View Solution

Question 43:

1. All Toms are bright

2. No bright Toms are Dicks

3. Some Toms are Dicks

4. Some Dicks are bright

5. No Tom is a Dick

6. No Dick is a Tom

  • (a) 123
  • (b) 256
  • (c) 126
  • (d) 341
Correct Answer: (c) 126
View Solution

Question 44:

1. All witches are nasty

2. Some devils are nasty

3. All witches are devils

4. All devils are nasty

5. Some nasty are devils

6. No witch is nasty

  • (a) 234
  • (b) 341
  • (c) 453
  • (d) 653
Correct Answer: (c) 453
View Solution

Question 45:

1. No tingo is a bingo

2. All jingoes are bingoes

3. No jingo is a tingo

4. Some jingoes are not tingoes

5. Some jingoes are jingoes

6. Some bingoes are not tingoes

  • (a) 123
  • (b) 132
  • (c) 461
  • (d) 241
Correct Answer: (c) 461
View Solution

Question 46:

Unless you decide your whole life to it, you will never learn to speak the language of another country to perfection; you will never know its people and its literature with complete intimacy.

Which of the following is likely to undermine the above argument?

  • (a) I can speak 10 foreign languages already.
  • (b) I do not travel to foreign countries.
  • (c) I am happy with the languages I know and do not need to learn any other language.
  • (d) I should spend time to understand my own people and literature first, only then can I appreciate other languages and cultures.
Correct Answer: (a) I can speak 10 foreign languages already.
View Solution

Question 47:

The writer can only be fertile if he renews himself and he can only renew himself if his soul is constantly enriched by fresh experience.

Which of the following is most likely to support the above thought?

  • (a) Only out of fresh experience can the writer get germs for new writing.
  • (b) The writer can meet new people.
  • (c) The writer must see new places.
  • (d) None of these.
Correct Answer: (a) Only out of fresh experience can the writer get germs for new writing.
View Solution

Question 48:

But because the idea of private property has been permitted to override with its selfishness, the common good of humanity it does not follow that there are not limits within which that idea can function for the general convenience and advantage.

Which of the following is most likely to weaken the argument?

  • (a) All the people of the society should progress at an equitable rate and there should be no disparities and private property does bring about a tremendous disparity.
  • (b) One should not strive for the common good of humanity at all, instead one should be concerned with maximising one’s own wealth.
  • (c) One should learn from the experiences of former communist nations and should not repeat his mistakes at all.
  • (d) Even prosperous capitalist countries like the USA have their share of social problems.
Correct Answer: (a) All the people of the society should progress at an equitable rate and there should be no disparities and private property does bring about a tremendous disparity.
View Solution

Question 49:

Now the audience is a very curious animal. It is shrewd rather than intelligent. Its mental capacity is less than that of its most intellectual members. If these were graded from A to Z, decreasing with succeeding letters to the zero of the hysterical shop-girl, I should say its mental capacity would come around about the letter O.

According to the above statement,

  • (a) some members in the audience are more intelligent than any of its other members.
  • (b) the net intelligence of the audience is a little less than average.
  • (c) Only (a)
  • (d) Both (a) and (b)
Correct Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)
View Solution

Question 50:

I have been studying it, consciously and subconsciously, for 40 years and I still find men unaccountable; people I know intimately can surprise me by some action of theirs which I never thought them capable of or by the discovery of some trait which exhibit a side of themselves that I never even suspecte(d)

The idea in this sentence can be best summarised as

  • (a) men are inconsistent and therefore one should not be confident even about one’s closest friends.
  • (b) men are unpredictable, one can never tell what they will do next; hence, one should be very careful in one’s dealings.
  • (c) no matter how closely you know somebody there still exists an unknown facet of his personality.
  • (d) None of these.
Correct Answer: (c) no matter how closely you know somebody there still exists an unknown facet of his personality.
View Solution

Question 51:

ABCD is a square of area \(4\), which is divided into four non-overlapping triangles as shown in the figure. Then the sum of the perimeters of the triangles is:


  • (a) \(8(2 + \sqrt{2})\)
  • (b) \(8(1 + \sqrt{2})\)
  • (c) \(4(1 + \sqrt{2})\)
  • (d) \(4(2 + \sqrt{2})\)
Correct Answer: (b) \(8(1 + \sqrt{2})\)
View Solution

Question 52:

\(5^6 - 1\) is divisible by:

  • (a) \(13\)
  • (b) \(31\)
  • (c) \(5\)
  • (d) None of these
Correct Answer: (a) \(13\)
View Solution

Question 53:

Ram purchased a flat at Rs. \(1\) lakh and Prem purchased a plot of land worth Rs. \(1.1\) lakh. The respective annual rates at which the prices of the flat and the plot increased were \(10%\) and \(5%\). After two years they exchanged their belongings and one paid the other the difference. Then:

  • (a) Ram paid Rs. 275 to Prem
  • (b) Ram paid Rs. 475 to Prem
  • (c) Ram paid Rs. 375 to Prem
  • (d) Prem paid Rs. 475 to Ram
Correct Answer: (b) Ram paid Rs. 475 to Prem
View Solution

Question 54:

How many rupees did Suvarna start with?

  • (a) Rs. 60
  • (b) Rs. 34
  • (c) Rs. 66
  • (d) Rs. 28
Correct Answer: (c) Rs. 66
View Solution

Question 55:

Who started with the lowest amount?

  • (a) Suvarna
  • (b) Tara
  • (c) Uma
  • (d) Vibha
Correct Answer: (d) Vibha
View Solution

Question 56:

Who started with the highest amount?

  • (a) Suvarna
  • (b) Tara
  • (c) Uma
  • (d) Vibha
Correct Answer: (a) Suvarna
View Solution

Question 57:

What was the amount with Uma at the end of the second round?

  • (a) 36
  • (b) 72
  • (c) 16
  • (d) None of these
Correct Answer: (a) 36
View Solution

Question 58:

72 hens cost Rs.\ __ 96.7__. Then what does each hen cost, where two digits in place of ‘__’ are not visible or are written in illegible hand?

  • (a) Rs.\ 3.23
  • (b) Rs.\ 5.11
  • (c) Rs.\ 5.51
  • (d) Rs.\ 7.22
Correct Answer: (c) Rs.\ 5.51
View Solution

Question 59:

A person has a certain amount with him and goes to market. He can buy 50 oranges or 40 mangoes. He retains 10% of the amount for taxi fares and buys 20 mangoes and of the balance he purchases oranges. Number of oranges he can purchase is:

  • (a) 36
  • (b) 40
  • (c) 15
  • (d) 20
Correct Answer: (a) 36
View Solution

Question 60:

The value of \(\frac{55^3 + 45^3}{55^2 - 55 \times 45 + 45^2}\) is:

  • (a) 100
  • (b) 105
  • (c) 125
  • (d) 75
Correct Answer: (a) 100
View Solution

Question 61:

Which one of the following cannot be the ratio of angles in a right-angled triangle?

  • (a) 1:2:3
  • (b) 1:1:2
  • (c) 1:3:6
  • (d) None of these
Correct Answer: (c) 1:3:6
View Solution

Question 62:

For the product \(n(n+1)(2n+1)\), \(n \in \mathbb{N}\), which one of the following is not necessarily true?

  • (a) It is even
  • (b) Divisible by 3
  • (c) Divisible by the sum of the square of first n natural numbers
  • (d) Never divisible by 237
Correct Answer: (d) Never divisible by 237
View Solution

Question 63:

The remainder obtained when a prime number greater than 6 is divided by 6 is:

  • (a) 1 or 3
  • (b) 1 or 5
  • (c) 3 or 5
  • (d) 4 or 5
Correct Answer: (b) 1 or 5
View Solution

Question 64:

Boxes numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 are kept in a row, and each is to be filled with either a red or a blue ball, such that no two adjacent boxes can be filled with blue balls. Then how many different arrangements are possible so that balls of a given colour are exactly identical in all respects?

  • (a) 8
  • (b) 10
  • (c) 15
  • (d) 22
Correct Answer: (c) 15
View Solution

Question 65:

AB \(\perp\) BC, BD \(\perp\) AC and CE bisects \(\angle C\), \(\angle A = 30^\circ\). Then what is \(\angle CED\)?


  • (a) \(30^\circ\)
  • (b) \(60^\circ\)
  • (c) \(45^\circ\)
  • (d) \(65^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (b) \(60^\circ\)
View Solution

Question 66:

A man invests Rs.\ 3,000 at the rate of 5% per annum. How much more should he invest at the rate of 8%, so that he can earn a total of 6% per annum?

  • (a) Rs.\ 1,200
  • (b) Rs.\ 1,300
  • (c) Rs.\ 1,500
  • (d) Rs.\ 2,000
Correct Answer: (c) Rs.\ 1,500
View Solution

Question 67:

\(\frac{2}{5}\) of the voters promise to vote for P and the rest promised to vote for Q. Of these, on the last day 15% of the voters went back on their promise to vote for P and 25% of voters went back on their promise to vote for Q, and P lost by 2 votes. Then the total number of voters is:

  • (a) 100
  • (b) 110
  • (c) 90
  • (d) 95
Correct Answer: (a) 100
View Solution

Question 68:

PQRS is a square. SR is a tangent (at point S) to the circle with centre O and TR = OS. Then the ratio of area of the circle to the area of the square is:


  • (a) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (b) \(\frac{11}{7}\)
  • (c) \(\frac{3}{\pi}\)
  • (d) \(\frac{7}{11}\)
Correct Answer: (a) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\)
View Solution

Question 69:

In a race of 200 m run, A beats S by 20 m and N by 40 m. If S and N are running a race of 100 m with exactly same speed as before, then by how many metres will S beat N?

  • (a) 11.11 m
  • (b) 10 m
  • (c) 12 m
  • (d) 25 m
Correct Answer: (a) 11.11 m
View Solution

Question 70:

Three consecutive positive even numbers are such that thrice the first number exceeds double the third by 2, then the third number is:

  • (a) 10
  • (b) 14
  • (c) 16
  • (d) 12
Correct Answer: (c) 16
View Solution

Question 71:

A group of men decided to do a job in 8 days. But since 10 men dropped out every day, the job got completed at the end of the 12th day. How many men were there at the beginning?

  • (a) 165
  • (b) 175
  • (c) 80
  • (d) 90
Correct Answer: (a) 165
View Solution

Question 72:

If a 4 digit number is formed with digits 1, 2, 3 and 5. What is the probability that the number is divisible by 25, if repetition of digits is not allowed?

  • (a) \(\frac{1}{12}\)
  • (b) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (c) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
  • (d) None of these
Correct Answer: (a) \(\frac{1}{12}\)
View Solution

Question 73:

Two typists undertake to do a jo(b) The second typist begins working one hour after the first. Three hours after the first typist has begun working, there is still \(\frac{9}{20}\) of the work to be done. When the assignment is completed, it turns out that each typist has done half the work. How many hours would it take each one to do the whole job individually?

  • (a) 12 hr and 8 hr
  • (b) 8 hr and 5.6 hr
  • (c) 10 hr and 8 hr
  • (d) 5 hr and 4 hr
Correct Answer: (a) 12 hr and 8 hr
View Solution

Question 74:

I live X floors above the ground floor of a high-rise building. It takes me 30 s per floor to walk down the steps and 2 s per floor to ride the lift. What is X, if the time taken to walk down the steps to the ground floor is the same as to wait for the lift for 7 min and then ride down?

  • (a) 4
  • (b) 7
  • (c) 14
  • (d) 15
Correct Answer: (c) 14
View Solution

Question 75:

The sides of a triangle are 5, 12 and 13 units. A rectangle is constructed, which is equal in area to the triangle, and has a width of 10 units. Then the perimeter of the rectangle is

  • (a) 30 units
  • (b) 36 units
  • (c) 13 units
  • (d) None of these
Correct Answer: (b) 36 units
View Solution

Question 76:

In the adjoining figure, AC + AB = 5AD and AC – AD = 8. Then the area of the rectangle ABCD is


  • (a) 36
  • (b) 50
  • (c) 60
  • (d) Cannot be answered
Correct Answer: (c) 60
View Solution

Question 77:

One root of \(x^2 + kx - 8 = 0\) is square of the other. Then the value of \(k\) is

  • (a) 2
  • (b) 8
  • (c) -8
  • (d) -2
Correct Answer: (a) 2
View Solution

Question 78:

In the given figure, AB is diameter of the circle and points C and D are on the circumference such that \(\angle CAD = 30^\circ\) and \(\angle CBA = 70^\circ\). What is the measure of \(\angle ACD\)?


  • (a) 40\(^\circ\)
  • (b) 50\(^\circ\)
  • (c) 30\(^\circ\)
  • (d) 90\(^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (b) 50\(^\circ\)
View Solution

Question 79:

The length of a ladder is exactly equal to the height of the wall it is leaning against. If lower end of the ladder is kept on a stool of height 3 m and the stool is kept 9 m away from the wall, the upper end of the ladder coincides with the top of the wall. Then the height of the wall is

  • (a) 12 m
  • (b) 15 m
  • (c) 18 m
  • (d) 11 m
Correct Answer: (b) 15 m
View Solution

Question 80:

A stockist wants to make some profit by selling sugar. He contemplates about various methods. Which of the following would maximise his profit?
I. Sell sugar at 10% profit.

II. Use 900 g of weight instead of 1 kg.

III. Mix 10% impurities in sugar and selling sugar at cost price.

IV. Increase the price by 5% and reduce weights by 5%.

  • (a) I or III
  • (b) II
  • (c) II, III and IV
  • (d) Profits are same
Correct Answer: (c) II, III and IV
View Solution

Question 81:

A man can walk up a moving 'up' escalator in 30 s. The same man can walk down this moving 'up' escalator in 90 s. Assume that his walking speed is the same upwards and downwards. How much time will he take to walk up the escalator, when it is not moving?

  • (a) 30 s
  • (b) 45 s
  • (c) 60 s
  • (d) 90 s
Correct Answer: (b) 45 s
View Solution

Question 82:

Two positive integers differ by 4 and sum of their reciprocals is \(\frac{10}{21}\). Then one of the numbers is

  • (a) 3
  • (b) 1
  • (c) 5
  • (d) 21
Correct Answer: (c) 5
View Solution

Question 83:

Three bells chime at an interval of 18 min, 24 min and 32 min. At a certain time they begin to chime together. What length of time will elapse before they chime together again?

  • (a) 2 hr and 24 min
  • (b) 4 hr and 48 min
  • (c) 1 hr and 36 min
  • (d) 5 hr
Correct Answer: (a) 2 hr and 24 min
View Solution

Question 84:

What is the value of \( m \) which satisfies \( 3m^2 - 21m + 30 < 0 \)?

  • (a) \( m < 2 \ or \ m > 5 \)
  • (b) \( m > 2 \)
  • (c) \( 2 < m < 5 \)
  • (d) Both a and c
Correct Answer: (c) \( 2 < m < 5 \)
View Solution

Question 85:

The rate of inflation was 1000%. Then what will be the cost of an article, which costs 6 units of currency now, 2 years from now?

  • (a) 666
  • (b) 660
  • (c) 720
  • (d) 726
Correct Answer: (c) 720
View Solution

Question 86:

Largest value of \( \min(2 + x^2, 6 - 3x) \), when \( x > 0 \), is

  • (a) 1
  • (b) 2
  • (c) 3
  • (d) 4
Correct Answer: (c) 3
View Solution

Question 87:

A, B, C and D are four towns any three of which are non-collinear. Then the number of ways to construct three roads each joining a pair of towns so that the roads do not form a triangle is

  • (a) 7
  • (b) 8
  • (c) 9
  • (d) 24
Correct Answer: (b) 8
View Solution

Question 88:

Find the value of: \[ me(a + mo(le(a, b)),\; mo(a + me(mo(a), mo(b)))) \]
where \(a = -2\) and \(b = -3\).

  • (a) 1
  • (b) 0
  • (c) 5
  • (d) 3
Correct Answer: (a) 1
View Solution

Step 1: Evaluate \(le(a, b)\) = least of \((-2, -3)\) = \(-3\).

Step 2: mo\((le(a, b))\) = mo\((-3)\) = \(|{-3}|\) = \(3\).

Step 3: First argument of me = \(a + mo(le(a, b))\) = \(-2 + 3 = 1\).

Step 4: mo\((a)\) = \(|-2| = 2\), mo\((b)\) = \(|-3| = 3\).

Step 5: \(me(mo(a), mo(b))\) = me\((2, 3) = 3\).

Step 6: Second argument inside mo = \(a + me(mo(a), mo(b))\) = \(-2 + 3 = 1\).

Step 7: mo\((1) = |1| = 1\).

Step 8: Final = me\((1, 1) = 1\). Quick Tip: Always resolve the innermost functions first (le, mo) before handling me. This avoids confusion in nested expressions.


Question 89:

Which of the following must always be correct for \(a, b > 0\)?

  • (a) mo(le(a, b)) \(\ge\) me(mo(a), mo(b))
  • (b) mo(le(a, b)) \(>\) me(mo(a), mo(b))
  • (c) mo(le(a, b)) \(\le\) me(mo(a), mo(b))
  • (d) mo(le(a, b)) = le(mo(a), mo(b))
Correct Answer: (c) mo(le(a, b)) \(\le\) me(mo(a), mo(b))
View Solution

Since \(a, b > 0\), le\((a, b)\) is simply the smaller of \(a\) and \(b\).
- mo(le(a, b)) = \(| smaller of a, b |\) = smaller of \(a, b\).
- me(mo(a), mo(b)) = max(\(a, b\)) since \(a, b\) are positive.

Clearly, smaller \(\le\) larger, so: \[ mo(le(a, b)) \le me(mo(a), mo(b)) \]
is always true. Quick Tip: For positive numbers, mo and le preserve order relationships, making inequality comparisons straightforwar(d)


Question 90:

For what values of \(a\) is me\((a^2 - 3a, a - 3) < 0\)?

  • (a) \(a > 3\)
  • (b) \(0 < a < 3\)
  • (c) \(a < 0\)
  • (d) \(a = 3\)
Correct Answer: (c) \(a < 0\)
View Solution

me\((X, Y) < 0\) means both \(X < 0\) and \(Y < 0\).
Here: \(X = a^2 - 3a\), \(Y = a - 3\).

Step 1: \(a - 3 < 0 \implies a < 3\).
Step 2: \(a^2 - 3a < 0 \implies a(a - 3) < 0 \implies 0 < a < 3\).

Both must hold simultaneously: \(a < 3\) and \(0 < a < 3\) gives \(0 < a < 3\).

But careful — For \(a < 0\),
- \(a^2 - 3a > 0\)? Wait — check: if \(a < 0\), \(a^2\) is positive, \(-3a\) positive, so sum positive → contradiction.

Actually the only valid range from intersection is \(0 < a < 3\). Correction — answer is (b). Quick Tip: For me\((X, Y) < 0\), check both expressions are negative; intersection of solution sets is the answer.


Question 91:

For what values of \(a\) is le\((a^2 - 3a, a - 3) < 0\)?

  • (a) \(a > 3\)
  • (b) \(0 < a < 3\)
  • (c) \(a < 0\)
  • (d) Both b and c
Correct Answer: (d) Both b and c
View Solution

le\((X, Y) < 0\) means the smaller of \(X\) and \(Y\) is negative.

Case 1: \(0 < a < 3\):
- \(a - 3 < 0\), so le\((X, Y)\) is negative → condition true.

Case 2: \(a < 0\):
- \(a - 3 < 0\), so again le\((X, Y)\) is negative regardless of \(X\).

Thus, both \(a < 0\) and \(0 < a < 3\) satisfy. Quick Tip: For le\((X, Y) < 0\), only one of them needs to be negative; check ranges where the smaller expression is negative.


Question 92:

If \(x, y\) and \(z\) are real numbers, is \(z - x\) even or odd?


% Statement I
I. \(xyz\) is od(d)

% Statement II
II. \(xy + yz + zx\) is even.

  • (a) if the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (b) if the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (c) if both statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (d) if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 93:

What is the value of \(x\), if \(x\) and \(y\) are consecutive positive even integers?


% Statement I
I. \((x - y)^2 = 4\)

% Statement II
II. \((x + y)^2 < 100\)

  • (a) if the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (b) if the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (c) if both statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (d) if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 94:

What is the profit percentage?


% Statement I
I. The cost price is 80% of the selling price.

% Statement II
II. The profit is Rs. 50.

  • (a) if the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (b) if the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (c) if both statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (d) if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (a)
View Solution

Question 95:

What is the area of the triangle?


% Statement I
I. Two sides are 41 cm each.

% Statement II
II. The altitude to the third side is 9 cm long.

  • (a) if the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (b) if the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (c) if both statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (d) if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 96:

What is the price of bananas?


% Statement I
I. With Rs. 84, I can buy 14 bananas and 35 oranges.

% Statement II
II. If price of bananas is reduced by 50%, then we can buy 48 bananas in Rs. 12.

  • (a) if the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (b) if the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (c) if both statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (d) if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (b)
View Solution

Question 97:

What is the first term of an arithmetic progression of positive integers?


% Statement I
I. Sum of the squares of the first and the second term is 116.

% Statement II
II. The fifth term is divisible by 7.

  • (a) if the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (b) if the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (c) if both statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (d) if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 98:

What is the length of rectangle ABCD?


% Statement I
I. Area of the rectangle is 48 square units.

% Statement II
II. Length of the diagonal is 10 units.

  • (a) if the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (b) if the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (c) if both statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (d) if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 99:

What is the number \(x\)?


% Statement I
I. The LCM of \(x\) and 18 is 36.

% Statement II
II. The HCF of \(x\) and 18 is 2.

  • (a) if the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (b) if the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (c) if both statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (d) if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 100:

Is \(x + y - z + t\) even?


% Statement I
I. \(x + y + t\) is even.

% Statement II
II. \(t\) and \(z\) are od(d)

  • (a) if the question can be answered with the help of statement I alone.
  • (b) if the question can be answered with the help of statement II alone.
  • (c) if both statement I and statement II are needed to answer the question.
  • (d) if the question cannot be answered even with the help of both the statements.
Correct Answer: (c)
View Solution

Question 101:

Which broad ideology helped Newt Gingrich lead the Republican revolution of 1994?

  • (a) Tax cuts
  • (b) Entitlement reform
  • (c) Welfare reform
  • (d) Welfare state dismantling
Correct Answer: (d) Welfare state dismantling
View Solution

Question 102:

Assuming the passage to be truthful, what does a party not need to win elections?

  • (a) Votes
  • (b) Money
  • (c) Constituencies
  • (d) Ideas
Correct Answer: (b) Money
View Solution

Question 103:

Which of the following is not a Republican?

  • (a) Newt Gingrich
  • (b) Pat Buchanan
  • (c) Bob Dole
  • (d) None of these
Correct Answer: (d) None of these
View Solution

Question 104:

The Republicans were tactically defeated by the Democrats because:

  • (a) of the shutdown of the government
  • (b) the balanced budget plan failed
  • (c) Steve Forbes led a revolution
  • (d) Bill Clinton pre-empted them
Correct Answer: (a) of the shutdown of the government
View Solution

Question 105:

Which of the following would be a suitable title for the passage?

  • (a) The Democrats: Victory in Sight
  • (b) Follies and Foibles of the Republican Party
  • (c) Republicans — Are You Crazy?
  • (d) Mutinies on the Republican Party
Correct Answer: (d) \textit{Mutinies on the Republican Party}
View Solution

Question 106:

The word ‘obsolete’ in the context of the passage means:

  • (a) antiquated
  • (b) absolute
  • (c) boring
  • (d) miasmic
Correct Answer: (a) antiquated
View Solution

Question 107:

What, according to the author, is the real danger for Republicans?

  • (a) The fact that small government is being ground to dust
  • (b) The fact that Bill Clinton is gaining popularity
  • (c) The fact that it is axioms, not just policies that are under fire
  • (d) The fact that the eventual nominee would be too tired to fight an election against Clinton
Correct Answer: (c) The fact that it is axioms, not just policies that are under fire
View Solution

Question 108:

Which of the following, according to Buchanan, is not an enemy?

  • (a) Big government
  • (b) Immigrants
  • (c) Captains of industry
  • (d) Foreign-aid requesters
Correct Answer: (a) Big government
View Solution

Question 109:

How many vehicles does the author mention in the passage?

  • (a) One
  • (b) Two
  • (c) Three
  • (d) Four
Correct Answer: (c) Three
View Solution

Question 110:

The author compares the weather bulletin channel reportage to

  • (a) a war
  • (b) the O. J. Simpson trial
  • (c) a ritual ceremony
  • (d) a theatre
Correct Answer: (c) a ritual ceremony
View Solution

Question 111:

Which of the following was not the result of the 'Winter of Blue Snow'?

  • (a) It almost ruined Theodore Roosevelt
  • (b) It made the Mississippi flow northward
  • (c) It turned rivers into glaciers
  • (d) It killed a lot of cattle
Correct Answer: (b) It made the Mississippi flow northward
View Solution

Question 112:

The moral indifference of the weather is stimulating in spite of being destructive because

  • (a) it shows no mercy.
  • (b) it organises people into a shared moment.
  • (c) Both (a) and (b)
  • (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Correct Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)
View Solution

Question 113:

The author’s reaction to the snowstorm may be said to be

  • (a) fascinated
  • (b) scared
  • (c) cynical
  • (d) deadpan
Correct Answer: (a) fascinated
View Solution

Question 114:

According to the author, one of the greatest attractions of the weather is that

  • (a) it is politicized
  • (b) it is apolitical
  • (c) it is reckless
  • (d) it is beautiful
Correct Answer: (b) it is apolitical
View Solution

Question 115:

What is most probably the physical position of the author of the passage?

  • (a) In his house
  • (b) In a snowstorm
  • (c) In his office
  • (d) In a bunk
Correct Answer: (a) In his house
View Solution

Question 116:

Which of the following is not true of the weather?

  • (a) It is a moral equivalent of war
  • (b) It is pleasantly manipulable
  • (c) It is a levelling force
  • (d) It dramatises man's insignificance
Correct Answer: (b) It is pleasantly manipulable
View Solution

Question 117:

The word 'undulously' in the context of the passage means

  • (a) unduly
  • (b) indomitably
  • (c) powerful
  • (d) curved
Correct Answer: (d) curved
View Solution

Question 118:

Who among the following is not a socialist?

  • (a) Robespierre
  • (b) Fourier
  • (c) Owen
  • (d) All are socialists
Correct Answer: (a) Robespierre
View Solution

Question 119:

Which of the following, according to the author, is true?

  • (a) The second form of socialism has more difficulties than the first.
  • (b) The second form of socialism has the same difficulties as the first.
  • (c) The second form of socialism has less difficulties than the first.
  • (d) The author has not compared the difficulties of the two.
Correct Answer: (a) The second form of socialism has more difficulties than the first.
View Solution

Question 120:

According to the author, the difference between the two kinds of socialists is that

  • (a) one consists of thinkers and the others are active people.
  • (b) the first have a definite philosophy and the second don’t have any definite philosophy.
  • (c) the first believe in gradual change while the others believe in revolutionary change.
  • (d) the first are the products of Britain, while the others are products of Russi(a)
Correct Answer: (c) the first believe in gradual change while the others believe in revolutionary change.
View Solution

Question 121:

Which of the following were characteristics of St. Just and Robespierre?

  • (a) Unconcern for other’s suffering
  • (b) Full confidence in their own wisdom
  • (c) Both (a) and (b)
  • (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Correct Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)
View Solution

Question 122:

Which of the following according to the author, may not be the result of not verifying the desirability of socialism experimentally first?

  • (a) Bloodshed
  • (b) Deprivation of current comfortable existence
  • (c) Corruption in high places
  • (d) Misery caused by resisting the change
Correct Answer: (c) Corruption in high places
View Solution

Question 123:

According to the philosophy of revolutionary socialism,

  • (a) the government takes over the villages first, and then gradually the whole country.
  • (b) the government takes over all productive resources of the country at one stroke.
  • (c) the government declares a police state and rules by decree.
  • (d) there is no government as such: the people rule themselves by the socialist doctrine.
Correct Answer: (b) the government takes over all productive resources of the country at one stroke.
View Solution

Question 124:

The word ‘avow’ in the context of the passage means

  • (a) proclaim
  • (b) vow
  • (c) affirm
  • (d) deny
Correct Answer: (a) proclaim
View Solution

Question 125:

It may be inferred from the passage that the author’s sympathies are for

  • (a) neither side.
  • (b) the side of the socialist doctrine.
  • (c) the second type of socialism.
  • (d) the first type of socialism.
Correct Answer: (d) the first type of socialism.
View Solution

Question 126:

A suitable title for the passage would be

  • (a) Man and Philosophy
  • (b) Philosophical Angst
  • (c) A Defence of Philosophy
  • (d) The Enemies of Philosophy
Correct Answer: (c) \textit{A Defence of Philosophy}
View Solution

Question 127:

Which of the following is true, keeping the passage in mind?

  • (a) Philosophy is evidently respected
  • (b) Philosophy is secretly despised
  • (c) Both (a) and (b)
  • (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Correct Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)
View Solution

Question 128:

Which of the following is not a charge against philosophy?

  • (a) That it is obsolete
  • (b) That it is mendacious
  • (c) That it is the handmaiden of political powers
  • (d) That it is immoral
Correct Answer: (d) That it is immoral
View Solution

Question 129:

Which of the following is not mentioned as a function of philosophy in the passage?

  • (a) It shows the way to man's dignity in the face of his empirical existence.
  • (b) It breaks through the shell of the world in order to move into the infinite.
  • (c) It pushes into the furthest horizons beyond being in the worl(d)
  • (d) It makes the world a better place to live in.
Correct Answer: (d) It makes the world a better place to live in
View Solution

Question 130:

Why according to the passage, would the politicians be happy if philosophy did not exist?

  • (a) Masses would be easier to manipulate as they would not think for themselves.
  • (b) They would not have to make false allegiances to ideologies.
  • (c) They would not have to face allegations of ignoring philosophy.
  • (d) They would not have to be philosophical about losing an election.
Correct Answer: (a) Masses would be easier to manipulate as they would not think for themselves
View Solution

Question 131:

The word 'chairs', in the context of the passage, means

  • (a) wooden-faced people.
  • (b) departments.
  • (c) separate chairs for philosophers.
  • (d) reserved seats for students of philosophy.
Correct Answer: (b) departments
View Solution

Question 132:

According to the author, the existence of philosophy is proved by

  • (a) the fact that there are still chairs of philosophy in universities.
  • (b) the defence measures it provokes.
  • (c) the polite respect it gets.
  • (d) the fact that it answers its fundamental questions.
Correct Answer: (b) the defence measures it provokes
View Solution

Question 133:

Which of the following has not been mentioned as a Steven Spielberg movie in the passage?

  • (a) Jaws
  • (b) E.T.
  • (c) Close Encounters
  • (d) Jurassic Park
Correct Answer: (a) \textit{Jaws}
View Solution

Question 134:

In which way does the author find the film inferior to the original book?

  • (a) The book is more interesting
  • (b) The book had a more convincing villain
  • (c) The book is easier to understand
  • (d) The story had a good author but a bad director
Correct Answer: (b) The book had a more convincing villain
View Solution

Question 135:

The passage is most probably

  • (a) a book review
  • (b) a film critic's comments
  • (c) a film review
  • (d) a magazine article
Correct Answer: (c) a film review
View Solution

Question 136:

The book \textit{Jurassic Park is written by

  • (a) Crichton
  • (b) Attenborough
  • (c) Hammond
  • (d) Neil
Correct Answer: (a) Crichton
View Solution

Question 137:

Which of the following does the author say of the film?

  • (a) The film is technically inferior and does not have a good storyline.
  • (b) The film is technically inferior but has a good storyline.
  • (c) The film is technically slick but does not have a good storyline.
  • (d) The film is technically slick and has a good storyline.
Correct Answer: (c) The film is technically slick but does not have a good storyline
View Solution

Question 138:

The writer’s opinion of the film \textit{Jurassic Park may be said to be

  • (a) very favourable
  • (b) very depressing
  • (c) excellent
  • (d) not very favourable
Correct Answer: (d) not very favourable
View Solution

Question 139:

Why according to the author, should we thank heaven for movies like \textit{Jurassic Park, even though they may not be very good aesthetically?

  • (a) Because they fill the halls, and thus people will finance more films.
  • (b) Because it is one of the major hits of the year.
  • (c) Because the film has brilliant technical wizardry.
  • (d) Because of the hundreds of films being produced, this is one of the few excellent ones.
Correct Answer: (a) Because they fill the halls, and thus people will finance more films
View Solution

Question 140:

According to the author, \textit{Jurassic Park

  • (a) is very amusing
  • (b) is very frightening
  • (c) Both (a) and (b)
  • (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Correct Answer: (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
View Solution

Question 141:

The phrase “muck about,” in the context of the passage, means

  • (a) make dirty
  • (b) interfere with
  • (c) be frivolous about
  • (d) to mask
Correct Answer: (b) interfere with
View Solution

Question 142:

The word 'pundit', in the context of the passage, means:

  • (a) a religious leader
  • (b) a psychologist
  • (c) an expert
  • (d) a paleontologist
Correct Answer: (c) an expert
View Solution

Question 143:

What was the main problem facing the new cabinet?

  • (a) The dissension in the ranks of the party.
  • (b) The devaluation of the currency.
  • (c) The foreign exchange market problem.
  • (d) The monetary union problem.
Correct Answer: (c) The foreign exchange market problem
View Solution

Question 144:

Who, according to the passage, is the leader of the Labour Party?

  • (a) Neil Kinnock
  • (b) John Smith
  • (c) Gerald Kaufmann
  • (d) Roy Hattersley
Correct Answer: (a) Neil Kinnock
View Solution

Question 145:

What, according to the treasury secretary, was the only way out of the exchange problem?

  • (a) Devaluation of the currency
  • (b) Rise in interest rates
  • (c) Government spending
  • (d) Raising taxes
Correct Answer: (b) Rise in interest rates
View Solution

Question 146:

It may be inferred from the passage that:

  • (a) the Bank of England would go along with whatever the government decide(d)
  • (b) the prime minister was a puppet in the hands of the Bank of Englan(d)
  • (c) the Bank of England was completely independent of the government.
  • (d) the Bank of England could put enormous pressure on the government to formulate policy.
Correct Answer: (d) the Bank of England could put enormous pressure on the government to formulate policy
View Solution

Question 147:

Why did Kinnock ask Smith to attend the Bank of England meeting without him?

  • (a) Because he did not get along with Smith.
  • (b) Because he wanted to use that time to confer with others.
  • (c) Because he already met them and did not want to meet them again.
  • (d) Because he was afraid of being censured by them.
Correct Answer: (b) Because he wanted to use that time to confer with others
View Solution

Question 148:

Why, according to the author, was the realignment conference not a viable option for the government?

  • (a) Because other countries may not follow the British lead in devaluation.
  • (b) Because the higher interest rates to be given by Britain may deplete resources further.
  • (c) Both (a) and (b)
  • (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Correct Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)
View Solution

Question 149:

Which of the following do not belong to the Labour cabinet?

  • (a) Mr John Smith
  • (b) Mr Bryan Gould
  • (c) Mr Maastricht
  • (d) Mr G. Brown
Correct Answer: (c) Mr Maastricht
View Solution

Question 150:

What, according to the passage, was not a reason for the defeat of the Conservative Party?

  • (a) A lacklustre campaign
  • (b) Wrong policies
  • (c) No special message
  • (d) No political purpose
Correct Answer: (b) Wrong policies
View Solution

Question 151:

In which year was the tax per rupee of 'profit before tax' lowest?

  • (a) 1991
  • (b) 1992
  • (c) 1993
  • (d) 1994
Correct Answer: (d) 1994
View Solution

Question 152:

In which year was the sales per rupee of share capital highest?

  • (a) 1991
  • (b) 1992
  • (c) 1993
  • (d) 1994
Correct Answer: (b) 1992
View Solution

Question 153:

In which year the profit before tax per rupee of sales was the highest?

  • (a) 1991
  • (b) 1992
  • (c) 1993
  • (d) 1994
Correct Answer: (b) 1992
View Solution

Question 154:

In which year was the percentage addition to reserves over previous year reserves the highest?

  • (a) 1991
  • (b) 1992
  • (c) 1993
  • (d) 1994
Correct Answer: (b) 1992
View Solution

Question 155:

Amount of the reserves at the end of 1994 is:

  • (a) Rs. 935 lakh
  • (b) Rs. 915 lakh
  • (c) Rs. 230 lakh
  • (d) None of these
Correct Answer: (a) Rs. 935 lakh
View Solution

Question 156:

The maximum percentage decrease in market share is:

  • (a) 60%
  • (b) 50%
  • (c) 53.3%
  • (d) 20%
Correct Answer: (a) 60%
View Solution

Question 157:

The city in which minimum number of products increased their market shares in 1993-94 is:

  • (a) Mumbai
  • (b) Delhi
  • (c) Kolkata
  • (d) Chennai
Correct Answer: (b) Delhi
View Solution

Question 158:

The market shares of which products did not decrease between 1993-94 in any city?

  • (a) HD
  • (b) CO
  • (c) BN
  • (d) None of these
Correct Answer: (d) None of these
View Solution

Question 159:

The number of products which had 100% market share in four metropolitan cities is:

  • (a) 0
  • (b) 1
  • (c) 2
  • (d) 3
Correct Answer: (a) 0
View Solution

Question 160:

The number of products which doubled their market shares in one or more cities is:

  • (a) 0
  • (b) 1
  • (c) 2
  • (d) 3
Correct Answer: (c) 2
View Solution

Question 161:

The operating profit in 1991-92 increased over that in 1990-91 by:

  • (a) 23%
  • (b) 22%
  • (c) 25%
  • (d) 24%
Correct Answer: (c) 25%
View Solution

Question 162:

The interest burden in 1991-92 was higher than that in 1990-91 by:

  • (a) 50%
  • (b) Rs. 25 lakh
  • (c) 90%
  • (d) Rs. 41 lakh
Correct Answer: (b) Rs. 25 lakh
View Solution

Question 163:

If on average, 20% rate of interest was charged on borrowed funds, then the total borrowed funds used by this company in the given two years amounted to:

  • (a) Rs. 221 lakh
  • (b) Rs. 195 lakh
  • (c) Rs. 368 lakh
  • (d) Rs. 515 lakh
Correct Answer: (c) Rs. 368 lakh
View Solution

Question 164:

The retained profit in 1991-92, as compared to that in 1990-91 was:

  • (a) higher by 2.5%
  • (b) higher by 1.5%
  • (c) lower by 2.5%
  • (d) lower by 1.5%
Correct Answer: (c) lower by 2.5%
View Solution

Question 165:

The equity base of these companies remained unchange(d) Then the total dividend earning by the shareholders in 1991-92 is:

  • (a) Rs. 104 lakh
  • (b) Rs. 9 lakh
  • (c) Rs. 12.8 lakh
  • (d) Rs. 15.6 lakh
Correct Answer: (d) Rs. 15.6 lakh
View Solution

Question 166:

In which year was the trade deficit highest?

  • (a) 1987-88
  • (b) 1988-89
  • (c) 1989-90
  • (d) 1990-91
Correct Answer: (d) 1990-91
View Solution

Question 167:

In how many years was the trade deficit less than the trade deficit in the succeeding year?

  • (a) 1
  • (b) 2
  • (c) 3
  • (d) 4
Correct Answer: (c) 3
View Solution

Question 168:

Export earning in 1990-91 is how many percent of imports in 1991-92?

  • (a) 82%
  • (b) 85%
  • (c) 90%
  • (d) 15%
Correct Answer: (a) 82%
View Solution

Question 169:

In the last three years the total export earnings have accounted for how many percent of the value of the imports?

  • (a) 80%
  • (b) 83%
  • (c) 95%
  • (d) 88%
Correct Answer: (b) 83%
View Solution

Question 170:

Which of the following statements can be inferred from the graph?

I. In all the years shown in the graph, the trade deficit is less than the export earning.

II. Export earnings increased in every year between 1989-90 and 1991-92.

III. In all the years shown in the graph, the earning by exports is less than the expenditure on imports in the preceding year.

  • (a) I only
  • (b) II only
  • (c) III only
  • (d) I and III only
Correct Answer: (a) I only
View Solution

Question 171:

Which year shows the highest change in revenue obtained from journals?

  • (a) 1989
  • (b) 1990
  • (c) 1991
  • (d) 1992
Correct Answer: (b) 1990
View Solution

Question 172:

In 1992, what per cent of the total revenue came from books?

  • (a) 45%
  • (b) 55%
  • (c) 35%
  • (d) 25%
Correct Answer: (a) 45%
View Solution

Question 173:

The number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from at least two categories is:

  • (a) 1
  • (b) 2
  • (c) 3
  • (d) 4
Correct Answer: (b) 2
View Solution

Question 174:

If 1993 were to show the same growth as 1992 over 1991, the revenue in 1993 must be:

  • (a) Rs. 194 lakh
  • (b) Rs. 187 lakh
  • (c) Rs. 172 lakh
  • (d) Rs. 177 lakh
Correct Answer: (b) Rs. 187 lakh
View Solution

Question 175:

The growth in total revenue from 1989 to 1992 is:

  • (a) 21%
  • (b) 28%
  • (c) 15%
  • (d) 11%
Correct Answer: (a) 21%
View Solution

Question 176:

What is the maximum number of units that can be manufactured in one day?

  • (a) 140
  • (b) 160
  • (c) 120
  • (d) 180
Correct Answer: (b) 160
View Solution

Question 177:

If M1 works at half its normal efficiency, what is the maximum number of units produced, if at least one unit of each must be produced?

  • (a) 96
  • (b) 89
  • (c) 100
  • (d) 119
Correct Answer: (c) 100
View Solution

Question 178:

What is the least number of machine hours required to produce 30 pieces of P and 25 pieces of Q respectively?

  • (a) 6 hr 30 min
  • (b) 7 hr 24 min
  • (c) 6 hr 48 min
  • (d) 4 hr 6 min
Correct Answer: (d) 4 hr 6 min
View Solution

Question 179:

If the number of units of P is to be three times that of Q, what is the maximum idle time to maximize total units manufactured?

  • (a) 0 min
  • (b) 24 min
  • (c) 1 hr
  • (d) 2 hr
Correct Answer: (b) 24 min
View Solution

Question 180:

If equal quantities of both are to be produced, then out of the four choices given below, the least idle way would be:

  • (a) 48 of each with 3 min idle
  • (b) 64 of each with 12 min idle
  • (c) 53 of each with 10 min idle
  • (d) 71 of each with 9 min idle
Correct Answer: (a) 48 of each with 3 min idle
View Solution

Question 181:

What is the total requirement of cloth?

  • (a) 1,50,000 m
  • (b) 2,00,000 m
  • (c) 2,25,000 m
  • (d) 2,50,000 m
Correct Answer: (b) 2,00,000 m
View Solution

Question 182:

How many metres of low-quality cloth is consumed?

  • (a) 22,500 m
  • (b) 46,500 m
  • (c) 60,000 m
  • (d) 40,000 m
Correct Answer: (b) 46,500 m
View Solution

Question 183:

How many metres of high-quality cloth is consumed by A-type shirts?

  • (a) 8,000 m
  • (b) 112,000 m
  • (c) 24,000 m
  • (d) 30,000 m
Correct Answer: (c) 24,000 m
View Solution

Question 184:

What is the ratio of the three qualities of dyes in high-quality cloth?

  • (a) 2 : 3 : 5
  • (b) 1 : 2 : 5
  • (c) 7 : 9 : 10
  • (d) Cannot be determined
Correct Answer: (d) Cannot be determined
View Solution

Question 185:

What is the ratio of low-quality dye used for C-type shirts to that used for D-type shirts?

  • (a) 3 : 2
  • (b) 2 : 1
  • (c) 1 : 2
  • (d) 2 : 3
Correct Answer: (b) 2 : 1
View Solution


Also Check:

CAT 1995 Paper Analysis

Interestingly, in 1995, the Verbal Ability and Reading Comprehension sections came with a sectional time limit of 60 minutes. Similarly, Problem Solving and Data Interpretation were also merged and only 1 hour were allotted to complete the 85 questions. Given below is the distribution of questions in CAT 1995 Question Paper for your reference:

Section Number of Questions
Verbal Ability 50
Reading Comprehension 50
Problem Solving 45
Data Interpretation 40
Total 185

CAT Previous Year Question Papers

Candidates preparing for CAT exam are recommended to solve CAT previous year question papers to improve their time management and problem-solving skills.

Other MBA Exam Question Papers

CAT Questions

  • 1.
    A circular plot of land is divided into two regions by a chord of length $10\sqrt{3}$ meters such that the chord subtends an angle of $120^\circ$ at the center. Then, the area, in square meters, of the smaller region is

      • \(20(\frac{4\pi}{3}+\sqrt{3})\)
      • \(20(\frac{4\pi}{3}-\sqrt{3})\)
      • \(25(\frac{4\pi}{3}+\sqrt{3})\)
      • \(25(\frac{4\pi}{3}-\sqrt{3})\)

    • 2.
      Five jumbled up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of that sentence as your answer.

        • Part of the appeal of forecasting is not just that it seems to work, but that you don't seem to need specialized expertise to succeed at it.
        • The tight connection between forecasting and building a model of the world helps explain why so much of the early interest in the idea came from the intelligence community.
        • This was true even though the latter had access to classified intelligence.
        • One frequently cited study found that accurate forecasters' predictions of geopolitical events, when aggregated using standard scientific methods, were more accurate than the forecasts of members of the US intelligence community who answered the same questions in a confidential prediction market.
        • The aggregated opinions of non-experts doing forecasting have proven to be a better guide to the future than the aggregated opinions of experts.

      • 3.
        Five jumbled up sentences (labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5), related to a topic, are given below. Four of them can be put together to form a coherent paragraph. Identify the odd sentence and key in the number of that sentence as your answer.

          • Animals have an interest in fulfilling their basic needs, but also in avoiding suffering, and thus we ought to extend moral consideration.
          • Singer viewed himself as a utilitarian, and presents a direct moral theory concerning animal rights, in contrast to indirect positions, such as welfarist views.
          • He argued for extending moral consideration to animals because, similar to humans, animals have certain significant interests.
          • The event that publicly announced animal rights as a legitimate issue within contemporary philosophy was Peter Singer’s Animal Liberation text in 1975.
          • As such, we ought to view their interests alongside and equal to human interests, which results in humans having direct moral duties towards animals.

        • 4.
          When 3333 is divided by 11, the remainder is

            • 1
            • 6
            • 5
            • 10

          • 5.
            There is a sentence that is missing in the paragraph below. Look at the paragraph and decide where (option 1, 2, 3, or 4) the following sentence would best fit.
            Sentence: [T]he Europeans did not invent globalization.
            Paragraph: The first phase of globalization occurred long before the introduction of either steam or electric power…Chinese consumers at all social levels consumed vast quantities of spices, fragrant woods and unusual plants. The peoples of Southeast Asia who lived in forests gave up their traditional livelihoods and completely reoriented their economies to supply Chinese consumers….___(1)___. These exchanges of the year 1000 opened some of the routes through which goods and peoples continued to travel after Columbus traversed the mid-Atlantic. ___(2)___. Yet the world of 1000 differed from that of 1492 in important ways….the travellers who encountered one another in the year 1000 were much closer technologically. ___(3)___. They changed and augmented what was already there since 1000. ___(4)___. If globalization hadn’t yet begun, Europeans wouldn’t have been able to penetrate the markets in so many places as quickly as they did after 1492.

              • Option 4
              • Option 3
              • Option 2
              • Option 1

            • 6.
              \( 10^{68} \) is divided by 13, the remainder is  is

                • 9
                • 4
                • 5
                • 8

              Fees Structure

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              CategoriesState
              General2400
              sc1200
              pwd1200

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