CAT 1992 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF is available for download. CAT 1992 Question Paper was a set of 150 questions. A total of 120 minutes or 2 hours were allotted to complete the 150 questions. All the questions were distributed across 4 sections I e. Verbal Ability, Data Interpretation, Problem Solving/ Quant, and Reading Comprehension.
Candidates preparing for CAT 2025 can download the CAT 1992 question paper with the solution PDF to get a better idea about the type of questions asked in the paper and their difficulty level.
Also Check:
CAT 1992 Question Paper with Solution PDF
| CAT 1992 Question Paper with Answer Key | Download PDF | Check Solutions |
1. Amount of published information available varies widely by industry.
A. Unfortunately for the researcher, many industries do not meet these criteria, and there may be little published information available.
B. Generally, the problem the researcher will face in using published data for analysing an economically meaningful industry is that they are too broad or too arranged to fit the industry.
C. However, it is always possible to gain some important information about an industry from published sources and these sources should be aggressively pursued.
D. Larger the industry, the older it is, and the slower the rate of technological change, better is the available published information.
6. If a researcher starts searching for data with this reality in mind, the uselessness of broad data will be better recognised and the tendency to give up will be avoided.
View Solution
Step 1: The opening sentence 1 sets the stage about variability of published data. The logical next idea is that D explains what factors influence the amount of published data — size, age, and technological change.
Step 2: After D, A highlights the challenge that many industries still do not meet these criteria.
Step 3: Then C offers a positive angle — even with limitations, some useful information can still be found from published sources.
Step 4: Finally, B generalises the typical problem researchers face with such published data, leading to sentence 6 that advises how to avoid discouragement.
Hence the sequence is DACB. Quick Tip: Look for sentences that explain or qualify the first line's general statement before moving to problems and solutions.
The main source of power in industrial undertaking is electricity.
A. Electricity from water also requires enormous river valley projects involving huge expenditure.
B. In contrast, electricity from atomic power stations will result in a tremendous saving in expenditure.
C. Besides, the mineral resources of the world required for generation of electricity are being rapidly depleted.
D. But the production of electricity needs huge quantities of coal.
6. The installation of atomic plants will help in meeting the shortage of these resources.
View Solution
Step 1: The first sentence introduces electricity as the main source. The next detail should be A, describing hydroelectricity and its huge cost.
Step 2: B contrasts atomic power with hydroelectricity in terms of expenditure savings.
Step 3: D then talks about another challenge — coal requirement for electricity.
Step 4: C logically follows, stressing depletion of mineral resources, leading to sentence 6 that promotes atomic plants as a solution.
Sequence: ABDC. Quick Tip: When you see a “In contrast” sentence, it usually pairs with the one it contrasts immediately before or after it.
Intensity of competition in an industry is neither a matter of coincidence nor bad luck.
A. The collective strength of these forces determines the ultimate profit potential in the industry where profit potential is measured in terms of long run returns on invested capital.
B. Rather, competition in an industry is rooted in its underlying economic structure and goes well beyond the behaviour of current competitors.
C. Not all industries have the same potential.
D. The state of competition in an industry depends on five basic competitive forces.
6. They differ fundamentally in their ultimate profit potential as the collective strength of the forces differ.
View Solution
Step 1: Sentence 1 states competition is not luck. The logical follow-up is D, introducing the five forces model.
Step 2: C then notes that industries differ in potential.
Step 3: A elaborates on how the collective strength of the forces determines profitability.
Step 4: Finally, B gives a broader view that competition is structural, leading to sentence 6 which rephrases C.
Sequence: DCAB. Quick Tip: Follow definitions or introductions (like “depends on”) with explanations or consequences, then examples or broader analysis.
The general enemy of mankind, as people have discovered, is not science, but war.
A. It is found that there is peace, science is constructive; when there is war science is perverted to destructive ends.
B. Science merely reflects the social forces by which it is surrounded.
C. Until now, they have brought us to the doorstep of doom.
D. The weapon which science gives us do not necessarily create war, these make war increasingly more terrible.
6. Our main problem, therefore, is not to curb science, but to stop war, to substitute law for force and international governments for anarchy in the relations between nations.
View Solution
Step 1: Sentence 1 contrasts war with science; A follows, explaining how science’s nature changes in peace vs war.
Step 2: B supports this by saying science reflects society’s forces.
Step 3: D then addresses weapons and war’s increased destructiveness.
Step 4: C concludes by stating how science and war have led us to danger, linking to sentence 6.
Sequence: ABDC. Quick Tip: When the first line sets up a contrast, pick sentences that explain both sides before moving to examples or effects.
It will be foolish to deny that the countryside has many attractions to offer.
A. One soon gets tired of the same old scenes and creatures day in and day out.
B. But there is another side of the picture.
C. The honesty and frankness of the country-folk, too, is a refreshing change from the dishonesty and selfishness we find in so many urban people.
D. There is the lovely scenery, the interesting and varied wildlife, the long rambles through the woods and fields and the clean, healthy air.
6. The loneliness and monotony in the countryside soon begin to make themselves felt and we long for the familiar sidewalks and street corners of the town.
View Solution
Step 1: Sentence 1 praises countryside, D lists scenic and wildlife attractions.
Step 2: C adds the charm of honest country folk.
Step 3: A shifts to monotony, showing the downside.
Step 4: B transitions to the other side of the picture, leading to sentence 6.
Sequence: DCAB. Quick Tip: Positive descriptions often come first, then negatives or contrasting points, before wrapping up.
1. A welfare state in the attainment of its objective must avoid coercion and violence.
A. But communism implies the loss of freedom of expression and action and introduces a regimentation of life.
B. Communism implies the loss of freedom of expression and action and introduces a regimentation of life.
C. There are all serious disadvantages which perhaps outweigh the economic gains.
D. Communism aims at the welfare state and perhaps the completest form of the welfare state in most respects.
6. A true welfare state can develop only by following the path of peace and democracy.
View Solution
Step 1: Sentence 1 outlines welfare state’s aim. D connects welfare state to communism.
Step 2: C discusses the disadvantages.
Step 3: A and B elaborate on loss of freedom and regimentation.
Sequence: DCAB. Quick Tip: Identify the main theme first, then follow with pros, cons, and examples before concluding.
1. Human experience tends to show that the more we mix with a man, the more we come to dislike him.
A. When the acquaintance with him ripens into intimacy, we are likely to become very keenly aware of his defects and imperfections.
B. In the beginning, we may feel greatly attracted by someone because of certain qualities that we find in him.
C. But on closer acquaintance we will begin to perceive his faults and shortcomings.
D. The truth is that nobody is free from faults and weaknesses.
6. But while a man makes a show of his strong points and his good qualities, he generally tries to conceal or cover his faults and defects.
View Solution
Step 1: Sentence 1 states we come to dislike with familiarity; A elaborates how intimacy reveals flaws.
Step 2: C supports this with closer acquaintance showing faults.
Step 3: B backtracks to initial attraction.
Step 4: D concludes with universal truth about faults, linking to sentence 6.
Sequence: ACBD. Quick Tip: In para-jumbles about relationships, start with progression over time, then examples, and end with a general truth.
Arrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph:
A. It is turning off the tap.
B. And with no consensus of the exit policy, the government is damned if it supports loss making units and damned if it doesn’t.
C. The private sector did the same in the past because securing legal sanction for closure was virtually impossible.
D. After years of funding the losses of public sector companies, the government is doing the unthinkable.
View Solution
The sequence starts with D, introducing the government’s surprising decision.
Next, A explains this action metaphorically as “turning off the tap.”
Then C gives historical context by comparing it with private sector experience.
Finally, B presents the dilemma caused by lack of consensus on exit policy.
Thus, the most coherent order is DACB. Quick Tip: Look for an opening sentence that sets the context or presents a surprising fact, then link it with examples, background, and conclude with challenges.
Arrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph:
A. Trade protocols were signed, the dollar as the medium of exchange was ignored, trade was denominated in rupees and the exchange rate between the two countries was to be fixed outside the ambit of free markets.
B. A young India, some years after independence fashioning her foreign policy of nonalignment, found it prudent to stay close to the former Soviet Union.
C. Once upon a time there was a super power named Soviet Union that attracted nations apprehensive of the global aspirations of the other superpower, the U.S.A.
D. One way of doing this was to evolve a bilateral relationship in trade that could be called upon to provide a buffer against the arm-twisting by the U.S.A.
View Solution
The paragraph begins with B, presenting India’s foreign policy stance post-independence.
Next, C describes the global context with two superpowers, highlighting the Soviet Union’s appeal.
A provides a specific example of trade protocols resulting from this alignment.
Finally, D explains the strategic rationale behind such protocols.
Hence, the correct sequence is BCAD. Quick Tip: In historical-political para-jumbles, start with national stance, then present the global background, followed by concrete agreements, and end with the reasoning.
Arrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph:
A. I had heard that sort of thing before.
B. He said that his generation was the first to believe that it had no future.
C. A young American made earthling stopped by my house the other day to talk about some book of mine he had read.
D. He was the son of a Boston man who had died an alcoholic vagrant.
View Solution
C introduces a character and the context of the meeting.
D adds background information about this character.
B conveys his generational perspective.
Finally, A gives the narrator’s reaction to his statement.
Therefore, the coherent sequence is CDBA. Quick Tip: When a character is introduced, follow up with their background, then present their view or statement, and end with the narrator's reflection.
Arrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph:
A. This is probably one of the reasons why the number of women and men remain roughly equal in most societies.
B. Fortunately or unfortunately, individual couples cannot really be concerned about this overall 'error'.
C. Population growth can then be considered the error of this central process.
D. Purely at the human level, it appears that most couples like to have at least one living daughter and one living son when they are in the middle ages.
View Solution
D starts by stating a human preference in family planning.
A generalises this preference to explain gender ratio stability.
C then reframes population growth as a systemic ‘error’.
Finally, B highlights that couples do not consider the overall demographic effect.
Hence, DACB is the right sequence. Quick Tip: In cause-effect jumbles, start with a specific observation, move to a generalisation, then present systemic implications, and end with human perspective.
Arrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph:
A. Against this background, the current target of 12.8 percent does not seem that high a figure.
B. A better vantage point to evaluate the 12.8 percent target for export growth is our performance in the ‘golden years’ between 1986–87 and 1990–91, during which time exports in dollar terms increased by 17.1 percent.
C. In fact, the rate of growth would have to increase still further if we were to achieve the eighth plan target of export growth in value terms of 13.6 percent per annum.
D. In 1990–91, the year of the Gulf War, exports went up by 9 percent.
View Solution
B gives the historical benchmark for export growth.
D follows with a specific year’s performance data.
A compares the current target to historical figures.
Finally, C emphasises the need for further growth to meet long-term targets.
Thus, BDAC is the logical order. Quick Tip: When numerical data is involved, start with broader historical figures, then give a specific example, compare to current goals, and finish with future requirements.
Arrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph:
A. Their growing costs and a growing economy must be reckoned with realistically.
B. Central programmes persist and in some cases grow.
C. As demand expands, programmes expand.
D. It is extremely difficult to curtail them.
View Solution
B introduces the persistence and growth of central programmes.
C explains this growth as a response to demand expansion.
D points out the difficulty in curtailing them.
Finally, A concludes with the reality of their increasing costs in a growing economy.
Hence, BCDA is the right sequence. Quick Tip: For process-based jumbles, arrange sentences in the order: current status → cause → problem → implication.
Arrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph:
A. It was never denied and seemed to be integrated into the city life.
B. The poverty was there right in the open in all the streets.
C. But, somehow it did not depress me as much as I had feared.
D. Indian society is associated with great poverty, and indeed I saw a lot of poverty in Bombay.
View Solution
D begins with a general observation about poverty in India.
B narrows it to visible poverty in Bombay’s streets.
C describes the narrator’s emotional response.
Finally, A concludes by noting that poverty is integrated into city life.
Thus, the correct sequence is DBCA. Quick Tip: In descriptive jumbles, move from general observation → specific detail → personal reaction → concluding remark.
Arrange the sentences to form a coherent paragraph:
A. This has been going on now for nearly 200 years.
B. They haven’t even been noticed much by central, state, or local governments, no matter how insolent or blasphemous or treasonous those writers may be.
C. But writers of novels, plays, short stories or poems have never been hurt or hampered much.
D. Journalists and teachers are often bullied or fired in my country for saying this or that.
View Solution
D introduces the main issue of suppression faced by journalists and teachers.
C contrasts this with the relative freedom of literary writers.
B elaborates that governments have largely ignored such writers.
Finally, A wraps up by stating the longevity of this pattern.
Hence, DCBA is the most coherent sequence. Quick Tip: For contrast-based jumbles, start with one side of the contrast, then present the opposite, give supporting detail, and conclude with a summary.
A. All boys are good.
B. Some girls are bad.
C. Good people are educated.
D. Boys are educated.
E. Ram is an educated boy.
F. Lata is an educated girl.
View Solution
From statement A, “All boys are good”, and C, “Good people are educated”, we can deduce that all boys are educated because boys are good and all good people are educated. This leads directly to D, “Boys are educated”.
Thus, A \(\rightarrow\) C \(\rightarrow\) D forms a logical chain of reasoning.
Other options either bring unrelated facts (like Lata or Ram) or add extra premises not required to conclude directly. Quick Tip: In syllogism-based selection, link statements so the subject of one matches the predicate of another, producing a direct logical conclusion.
A. All who are sincere are graduates.
B. Some graduates are not sincere.
C. All who are sincere are dull.
D. All graduates are dull.
E. Some who are dull are graduates.
F. No one who is dull is sincere.
View Solution
From A, “All who are sincere are graduates”, and D, “All graduates are dull”, we conclude that all sincere people are dull. This fits perfectly with F, “No one who is dull is sincere”, as the contrapositive of the earlier statement and completing the logical loop.
Thus, A \(\rightarrow\) D \(\rightarrow\) F provides a consistent relationship. Quick Tip: Look for universal (“All”) statements to form major premises, then link them with negatives (“No one”) to close the argument.
A. Sham won a lottery.
B. Sham lost in a chess game.
C. Sham is not intelligent.
D. One need not be intelligent to win a lottery.
E. One need not be intelligent to win a chess game.
F. Sham plays chess.
View Solution
From A, “Sham won a lottery”, and D, “One need not be intelligent to win a lottery”, we infer that winning a lottery does not require intelligence. Combined with C, “Sham is not intelligent”, the chain remains valid — Sham could still win despite lacking intelligence. This option logically fits without contradiction. Quick Tip: When an option includes an example and a general rule, verify if the example is consistent with the general rule before accepting it.
A. Good managers are intuitive.
B. Some managers are women.
C. Supriya is a good manager.
D. Supriya is a woman.
E. Some women are intuitive.
F. Supriya is intuitive.
View Solution
From A, “Good managers are intuitive”, and C, “Supriya is a good manager”, we deduce Supriya is intuitive (F). This direct chain A \(\rightarrow\) C \(\rightarrow\) F makes logical sense without needing unrelated premises. Quick Tip: For individual cases, combine a general statement with a specific example to draw direct conclusions.
A. Some college athletes are professionals.
B. No college athlete is a professional.
C. Some professionals are well paid.
D. All professionals are well paid.
E. All well–paid persons are professionals.
F. No well–paid person is a college athlete.
View Solution
From B, “No college athlete is a professional”, and E, “All well-paid persons are professionals”, we get F, “No well-paid person is a college athlete”. This is a valid categorical conclusion. Quick Tip: In categorical logic, combine universal negatives with universal affirmatives to deduce strict exclusions.
A. Some intolerant are poor–thinkers.
B. Some poor–thinker is intolerant.
C. All people with high ideals are intolerant.
D. No poor thinker is intolerant.
E. No poor thinker has high ideals.
F. Some people with high ideals are not poor thinkers.
View Solution
From C, “All people with high ideals are intolerant”, and E, “No poor thinker has high ideals”, we conclude that those with high ideals are not poor thinkers. This supports D as well, forming a consistent logical set. Quick Tip: When multiple universals are given, look for overlapping terms to generate immediate conclusions.
A. All engineers can sing.
B. No music lover can sing.
C. All who can sing are music lovers.
D. All music lovers can sing.
E. Some who can sing are engineers.
F. All engineers are music lovers.
View Solution
From A, “All engineers can sing”, and C, “All who can sing are music lovers”, we get F, “All engineers are music lovers” as a transitive conclusion. Quick Tip: Look for transitive links: If A \(\rightarrow\) B and B \(\rightarrow\) C, then A \(\rightarrow\) C.
A. Some well-dressed people are sociable.
B. All sociable people are well-dressed.
C. Some well-dressed people are dull.
D. No dull person is well-dressed.
E. Some sociable people are dull.
F. Some dull ones are well-dressed.
View Solution
From B, “All sociable people are well-dressed”, and C, “Some well-dressed people are dull”, we can also infer E, “Some sociable people are dull”, if some sociable fall into that dull subset. Quick Tip: Venn diagrams are a quick way to test partial overlaps and avoid invalid assumptions.
A. Iran and Iraq are members of the UN.
B. Iran and Iraq are not friends.
C. Iran and Iraq are neighbours.
D. Some UN members are friends.
E. Not all members of the UN are friends.
F. All neighbours are not friends.
View Solution
From A, “Iran and Iraq are members of the UN”, and B, “Iran and Iraq are not friends”, we can generalise E, “Not all members of the UN are friends”. Quick Tip: Generalise from specific examples only when the example is valid and representative of the category.
If an islander asks, "Do I belong to the No type", which of the following is correct?
View Solution
In Kya–Kya island:
- A 'Yes' type always asks questions whose truthful answer is 'Yes'.
- A 'No' type always asks questions whose truthful answer is 'No'.
If an islander asks, "Do I belong to the No type?" —
- If he is a 'Yes' type, the truthful answer to the question is 'No' (since he is not a No type), which violates the rule that 'Yes' types only ask questions whose answer is 'Yes'.
- If he is a 'No' type, the truthful answer to the question is 'Yes' (since he is indeed a No type), but a 'No' type would never ask a question whose truthful answer is 'Yes'.
Hence, neither type can logically ask such a question, making the situation impossible. Quick Tip: In such logic puzzles, test both roles against the truthfulness constraint to see if the question itself can be asked.
Ram and Laxman are brothers from the Island. Laxman asks you, "Is at least one of us brothers of type 'No'?" You can conclude that:
View Solution
Let us analyse:
Laxman’s question: "Is at least one of us brothers of type 'No'?"
Case 1: If Laxman is a 'Yes' type — he must be telling the truth.
- If his answer is 'Yes', then at least one of them is indeed a 'No'. Since Laxman is a 'Yes', the 'No' must be Ram.
Case 2: If Laxman is a 'No' type — he must be lying.
- If he says 'Yes', the truthful answer is 'No', meaning neither of them is 'No'. This would make both 'Yes', which contradicts the assumption that Laxman is 'No'.
- If he says 'No', the truthful answer would be 'Yes', meaning at least one is 'No', which again contradicts the lying rule.
Only Case 1 is consistent: Laxman is 'Yes' and Ram is 'No'. Quick Tip: Always separate the logical truth of the statement from the truthfulness of the speaker, then test each assumption for contradiction.
You are approached by one of the islanders and asked, "Am I of type 'Yes'?" You can infer that:
View Solution
If the islander asks, "Am I of type 'Yes'?" —
- If he is a 'Yes' type: The truthful answer to the question is 'Yes' (since he is of type 'Yes'), and he would indeed ask such a question. However, the 'Yes' type only asks questions with truthful answer 'Yes' — so the case is possible.
- But analysing carefully: If you are being asked this question, his truthful answer would be 'Yes'. This means if he were a 'Yes' type, there is no trick — but in puzzle logic, the only way to get certain identification is when the question structure forces one type. Here, if he is 'No', the truthful answer is 'No', but a 'No' type would only ask such a question if the truthful answer were 'No'. This perfectly fits the 'No' type rule.
Thus, hearing this question ensures he is a 'No' type. Quick Tip: Identify whether the form of the question aligns only with one type's asking rule; if it does, you can identify their type with certainty.
Each of these questions has four items. You are required to select that item which does not belong to the group.
View Solution
Options (b) \textit{cruel, (c) \textit{kind, and (d) \textit{loyal are all adjectives describing human qualities or traits of a person.
Option (a) \textit{authority, however, is a noun denoting a position or power rather than a personal quality.
Since it does not match the type of the other three, it is the odd one out. Quick Tip: When finding the odd one out, check if three belong to the same grammatical category (adjectives, nouns, verbs) or theme, and the fourth is different.
Each of these questions has four items. You are required to select that item which does not belong to the group.
View Solution
Options (a) \textit{revenue, (b) \textit{income, and (d) \textit{receivables are all related to money coming into a business or inflows.
Option (c) \textit{expenditure refers to money going out or spending, which is the opposite of the others.
Hence, \textit{expenditure is the odd one out. Quick Tip: Look for antonym/opposite meaning in the set; often the odd one out is the opposite concept of the other three.
Each of these questions has four items. You are required to select that item which does not belong to the group.
View Solution
Options (a) \textit{courage, (b) \textit{strength, and (c) \textit{valour are qualities or traits a person can have.
Option (d) \textit{warrior is a person or noun referring to someone who may possess these qualities, but it is not a quality itself.
Therefore, \textit{warrior is the odd one out. Quick Tip: Differentiate between qualities/attributes and the person/entity possessing them when identifying the odd one out.
Each of these questions has four items. You are required to select that item which does not belong to the group.
View Solution
Options (a) \textit{democracy, (c) \textit{monarchy, and (d) \textit{dictatorship are forms or systems of government.
Option (b) \textit{voting is an action or process used in certain systems like democracy, but it is not itself a system of governance.
Hence, \textit{voting is the odd one out. Quick Tip: In concept-based odd-one-out questions, identify whether three are categories/types of a larger idea while the fourth is just a related process.
Each of these questions has four items. You are required to select that item which does not belong to the group.
View Solution
Options (a) \textit{Gold medalist, (c) \textit{Olympic Champion, and (d) \textit{Record holder are all titles/achievements given to someone for outstanding performance.
Option (b) \textit{Athlete is a general term for a sportsperson and does not imply an achievement.
Thus, \textit{Athlete is the odd one out. Quick Tip: Distinguish between generic categories and specific achievements when selecting the odd one out.
Each of these questions has four items. You are required to select that item which does not belong to the group.
View Solution
Options (b), (c), and (d) all involve the use of personal intellectual or creative skills.
Option (a) \textit{Managers use their authority focuses on the use of positional power rather than a skill.
Hence, (a) is the odd one out. Quick Tip: When finding the odd one out, see if three options involve personal skill/ability while one involves positional power or unrelated concept.
Each of these questions has four items. You are required to select that item which does not belong to the group.
View Solution
Options (a), (c), and (d) are statements directly related to the cost or expense of air travel or aeroplanes.
Option (b) \textit{Most people travel to Australia by air is about the mode of travel, not about cost.
Therefore, (b) is the odd one out. Quick Tip: Odd-one-out questions can also be solved by identifying the theme; here, three deal with expense, one deals with travel habit.
Each of three friends knows whether the other two have passed or failed in an examination, but does not know his own result. The teacher comes and says, "At least one has failed." If all three still do not know their own results, which of the following is true?
View Solution
Step 1: Understanding the information each student has.
Each student can see the results of the other two, but does not know his own. The teacher's announcement — "At least one has failed" — is public knowledge.
Step 2: Considering the case of exactly one failure.
- If there were exactly one failure, the two students who see the failed person would know immediately that they have passed.
- This would allow them to deduce their result instantly after the teacher's statement.
- But the problem states that all three still do not know their results.
- Therefore, the case of exactly one failure is impossible.
Step 3: Considering the case of all three failing.
- If all three failed, each student would see two failures.
- In that case, they could not conclude whether they themselves passed or failed without knowing the teacher's statement.
- However, after hearing "at least one has failed", this still gives no new information, so uncertainty remains possible.
Step 4: Considering the case of exactly two failures.
- Suppose two have failed and one has passed. The one who passed sees two failures and cannot determine his own result immediately.
- The ones who failed see one pass and one fail; without further information, they cannot deduce their own status immediately either.
- Therefore, this situation is also consistent with the problem statement.
Step 5: Conclusion.
Since exactly one failure is ruled out, the only consistent possibilities are:
- Exactly two failures, or
- Exactly three failures.
Thus, the definite conclusion is that two or more students have failed. Quick Tip: In logic puzzles where players see others' results but not their own, if an "at least one" clue does not lead to an immediate deduction, it often means the minimum failure count is higher than one.
SYMPHONY : COMPOSER
View Solution
A symphony is a musical work created by a composer. Similarly, a novel is a literary work created by an author.
Thus, the relationship is \textit{"work of art" : "its creator". Options (a) and (b) do not show creation, and (d) relates a part to a whole, which is incorrect here. Quick Tip: Identify whether the first term is a creation, component, user, or description of the second. This clarifies analogy relationships quickly.
TREE : TRUNK
View Solution
A trunk is the main structural support of a tree, just as a chassis is the main structural support of a car. Both serve as the core framework holding other parts together. Options (a) and (c) relate to material/content, and (d) is a part-whole relationship but not a structural analogy. Quick Tip: Look for functional analogies — here, both pairs are about the "main supporting framework".
CIRCLE : ARC
View Solution
An arc is part of a circle, just as a segment is part of a line. Both pairs show a "whole to part" geometric relationship. Option (b) is generic part-whole, (c) is numerical relation, and (d) is comparative, not part-whole. Quick Tip: When geometry terms are given, check if the second is a portion or subdivision of the first.
COW : HERD
View Solution
A cow is a member of a herd, just as a child is a member of a family. Both refer to an individual belonging to a group. Other options do not maintain this "member-group" relationship. Quick Tip: Check if the first term belongs to the collective category represented by the second term.
WOOL : ACRYLIC
View Solution
Wool is a natural fiber, while acrylic is its synthetic substitute. Similarly, cotton is a natural fiber, and terylene is its synthetic alternative. Quick Tip: Identify if the relationship is natural vs synthetic version of a material.
DOCTOR : DISEASE
View Solution
A doctor works to cure disease; similarly, a teacher works to remove ignorance. Both indicate someone who removes a problem or deficiency. Quick Tip: Look for the "remover of" relationship when the first term addresses or solves the second.
BIRD : ORNITHOLOGY
View Solution
Ornithology is the study of birds; similarly, botany is the study of plants. This is a "subject : field of study" relationship. Quick Tip: When a science term is given, check if it denotes the study of the preceding noun.
FOOD : HUNGER
View Solution
Food satisfies hunger, just as sleep satisfies weariness. Both pairs express a "remedy for" relationship. Quick Tip: If the first term removes or alleviates the condition given in the second term, it’s a remedy analogy.
SPEAR : DART
View Solution
A dart is a smaller version of a spear, just as a molehill is a smaller version of a mountain. This is a "larger object : smaller object of similar kind" analogy. Quick Tip: When size or scale is the key difference, identify whether both terms are of the same category.
BUILDING : BRICK
View Solution
A building is constructed using bricks; similarly, a highway is constructed using asphalt. This shows a "whole made from material" relationship. Quick Tip: If the first term is a structure, check if the second term is the basic construction material.
Pakistan was the team / whom most people thought / would win the World Cup / held in 1987.
View Solution
Here, the relative pronoun should be “which” or “that” instead of “whom” because it refers to the noun “team” (non-person).
Correct sentence: “Pakistan was the team which most people thought would win the World Cup held in 1987.” Quick Tip: Use “who/whom” for people, and “which/that” for animals or things.
When you turn to your right, / you will find a big house / with a beautiful garden on the front side of it / and that is my residence.
View Solution
The phrase “on the front side of it” is redundant because “front” already implies “side.”
Better usage: “with a beautiful garden in front of it.” Quick Tip: Avoid redundant expressions; keep the sentence concise without changing meaning.
I have been postponing calling / on my friend in the hospital, / but I am planning / I would go there tomorrow.
View Solution
The phrase “I would go there tomorrow” is incorrect in this context.
It should be “I will go there tomorrow” because the plan is about a future action. Quick Tip: Use “will/shall” for future plans, and “would/should” for hypothetical or conditional situations.
I wondered who could be calling me at midnight / and when I took the phone / I found it was not other / than my fiancé from Paris.
View Solution
The expression “not other” is incorrect; the correct phrase is “none other.”
Correct sentence: “… I found it was none other than my fiancé from Paris.” Quick Tip: Idiomatic expressions must be used exactly as they are commonly accepted.
I want you to take the first bus / and to go to the Bank / and remit this cheque and then / come back straight here.
View Solution
The article “the” before “Bank” should be omitted unless referring to a specific named bank (e.g., The Bank of England).
Correct sentence: “… and to go to the bank” or “… and to go to a bank” depending on context. Quick Tip: Articles “a” and “the” must be used correctly depending on whether the noun is specific or general.
The discovery of sulphonamides
View Solution
According to the passage, sulphonamides were discovered in 1935 to treat certain bacterial infections, giving doctors powerful new tools for treatment. This aligns directly with option (b). There is no mention in the passage that they were used for diagnosis (option a), and while they marked the beginning of modern medicine, the statement in option (c) is broader and not explicitly tied to the discovery alone. Hence, (b) is the most accurate answer. Quick Tip: When a question asks about a historical development mentioned in the passage, focus on the specific role or use stated, rather than drawing broad conclusions not explicitly mentioned.
The current medical practice as carried out in America benefits mostly the
View Solution
The passage explains that modern medical procedures in America are high-cost and that access is limited, with rich people being able to obtain it more easily than poor ones. This clearly indicates that the main beneficiaries of the system are the rich. While doctors and companies may profit financially, the *benefit* in terms of access to advanced treatment primarily goes to the rich, making option (b) correct. Quick Tip: When the question asks “benefits mostly,” focus on the group that gains the most in practical use or access, not just financially.
In some European countries anti-diabetic drugs are far more commonly used than others because
View Solution
The passage explicitly states that medical practice varies widely from one country to another and gives anti-diabetic drug usage as an example. It clarifies that the difference is not due to a higher incidence of diabetes, but rather due to different approaches in medical treatment. This directly supports option (c) and rules out options (a), (b), and (d) as primary reasons. Quick Tip: When the passage directly gives a cause-and-effect statement, prioritize that over logical guesses that are not explicitly confirmed.
Which of the following statements is false?
View Solution
The passage notes that coronary bypass surgery is beneficial in the short term for some patients, which means it is not “entirely ineffective.” This makes option (a) false. Option (b) is supported by the study comparing surgery and drug-taking. Option (c) is true as the passage mentions surgical risk. Option (d) is also factual as per the Medicare cost figure given. Quick Tip: For “false” type questions, verify each statement against the passage and select the one that contradicts or overstates the given information.
Which of the following measures if undertaken under ‘Care rather than Cure’ movement could prove to be controversial?
View Solution
The passage describes “sin taxes” on unhealthy products like cigarettes and alcohol as a strong preventive measure but one that could be politically and socially contentious. Other options like screenings and vaccinations are generally accepted public health measures and less likely to be controversial. Quick Tip: When asked for “controversial” measures, look for actions with potential public resistance or political pushback, not just medical debate.
The outcomes movement could make a significant impact on medical practice if only
View Solution
The passage points out that one major challenge for the outcomes movement is that patient responses vary widely, making effectiveness difficult to measure. Uniform response would remove this obstacle, greatly increasing the movement’s impact. Options (a), (b), and (d) are not mentioned as the key limiting factor. Quick Tip: Look for conditional words like “if only” and match them to limitations stated in the passage; the inverse of the limitation becomes the correct condition.
Modern cure are known to be expensive because
View Solution
The passage highlights that biotechnology has produced new, expensive drugs, implying that the high cost is due to the expense of producing such medicines. This supports option (b). Options (a) and (c) are not specifically mentioned as primary reasons in the passage. Quick Tip: When a question asks for the main reason, ensure the answer matches the key cause directly stated in the passage.
The main objection to ‘care rather cure’ approach is that it
View Solution
The passage mentions that restricting public access to advanced medical procedures while leaving the rich free to buy them could result in poorer people being left with inferior care — essentially having to fend for themselves. This corresponds directly to option (a). Quick Tip: Focus on explicitly stated drawbacks rather than speculating; often the objection is given as a direct caution in the text.
Smith's attitude to the virtues of self-interest can be best described as
View Solution
From the passage, Smith does not see moral virtue in selfishness and is aware of its dangers. However, he acknowledges self-interest as a real and powerful economic force that can be harnessed for the social good through competition. This view reflects a practical, realistic approach rather than moral approval or disapproval — hence, pragmatic.
- He is \textit{not cynical because he does not view self-interest purely as corrupt or negative.
- He is \textit{not skeptical because he recognizes the economic utility of self-interest.
- He is \textit{not supportive in a moral sense because he warns about its dangers.
Thus, his approach balances acknowledgment of its role with a call for competitive regulation, which is pragmatic. Quick Tip: When the author recognizes a force as inevitable but proposes realistic controls instead of moral judgment, the stance is generally pragmatic.
According to Adam Smith
View Solution
From the passage, Smith explains that competition plays a regulatory role in the economy.
It prevents producers from excessively raising prices and helps in adjusting quantities and quality according to demand.
He specifically notes that competition also regulates quantities, as shifts in consumer demand reallocate resources between industries.
This makes option (d) correct.
- Option (a) is true in the passage but not the specific answer to 'according to Adam Smith' in this context.
- Option (b) is not his description of competition, rather of capitalist greed.
- Option (c) is partially true but incomplete; competition is more than a result of self-interest.
Quick Tip: When answering RC questions, look for the option that captures the exact role or function described by the author, not just a related fact.
All of the following are reasons for market failure except:
View Solution
In the passage, market failure is linked to the free-rider problem, externalities, and the inability of markets to provide certain public goods.
However, 'unfettered and unbridled trade' is not presented as a cause of market failure—it is actually the competitive mechanism that can correct inefficiencies.
Thus, option (c) is correct as the exception.
Quick Tip: For “except” questions, identify all options that fit the category in the passage, then eliminate them to find the outlier.
Adam Smith is most likely to agree with the statement:
View Solution
Smith famously remarked that people of the same trade often conspire to raise prices, implying that businessmen will form cartels if possible.
Option (b) directly reflects this view.
- Option (a) misrepresents his stance.
- Option (c) is sometimes true but not the main agreement point here.
- Option (d) is contrary to his preference for market mechanisms.
Quick Tip: When matching a statement to the author, look for direct quotations or paraphrases from the passage.
Which of the following situations is not an instance of market failure?
View Solution
Market failure occurs when resources are allocated inefficiently, often due to externalities, public goods, or imperfect competition.
A murderer going scot-free is a failure of the justice system, not the market system.
Thus, (d) is correct as it does not fit the economic definition of market failure.
Quick Tip: Differentiate between failures of economic systems and failures in legal or political systems when answering market-related questions.
The 'free rider' problem results in the need for all of the following except
View Solution
The free rider problem involves individuals benefiting from goods or services without paying for them, especially in public goods like defence, research, or international peacekeeping.
Government laws to prevent crime do not directly address the free rider issue.
Hence, option (a) is correct as the exception.
Quick Tip: Free rider problems are usually tied to public goods — think defence, infrastructure, and services available to all.
Based on the passage, competitions will directly affect all of the following except:
View Solution
The passage states that competition regulates prices, quality, and quantities.
The 'direction of flow of goods' is influenced more by demand and supply patterns rather than competition alone.
Thus, (c) is correct as the factor not directly affected by competition.
Quick Tip: Identify what the passage explicitly attributes to competition, and separate it from outcomes driven by other market forces.
We can conclude from the passage that:
View Solution
Smith argues that government intervention can lead to further intervention, creating a self-perpetuating cycle.
This matches option (a) as the correct inference from the passage.
Quick Tip: Look for cause-effect patterns in the passage to infer conclusions, especially when the author describes cycles or repeating outcomes.
Based on the passage, we could say that Adam Smith would not support
View Solution
Smith favoured free trade and opposed restrictions such as import licences, which hinder competition.
Thus, he would not support (d) 'import licences'.
Quick Tip: When an author consistently promotes free trade, they are usually against any restrictive trade tools like licences or quotas.
All the following characteristics of the modern world are used as arguments for government intervention except:
View Solution
The complexity of manufacturing is described in the passage but not as a reason for government intervention.
Reasons given include public goods, externalities, and large corporations' power.
Hence, (b) is correct as the exception.
Quick Tip: Pay attention to whether a detail is simply descriptive or actually used as a reason or argument in the passage.
Based on the passage, the following can be inferred, except which of the following?
View Solution
Smith preferred tariffs to quotas, but the passage does not endorse 'high customs duties'—only that tariffs are better than outright bans.
Thus, (b) is the inference not supported by the passage.
Quick Tip: For “except” inference questions, eliminate all options that are clearly supported, then carefully examine the remaining choice for subtle contradictions.
The most serious problem of modern government is that they
View Solution
The passage criticizes modern governments for offering preferences without recognizing the costs to others in the economy.
Thus, (b) is correct.
Quick Tip: Look for key criticisms in the author’s tone — they often point directly to the correct answer in such evaluative questions.
An atmospheric jet stream is
View Solution
From the passage, a jet stream is described as thousands of kilometers long, hundreds of kilometers wide, and several kilometers deep. This clearly indicates that it is not just a one-dimensional or two-dimensional occurrence but extends in length, width, and depth, making it a three-dimensional feature.
- Option (a) is incorrect because jet streams are not rare; they are mapped and forecast regularly, especially in the Northern Hemisphere.
- Option (c) is incorrect because while most studies are in the Northern Hemisphere, jet streams occur globally.
- Option (d) is incorrect because they are more common in winter, not summer.
Quick Tip: Look for dimensional descriptions in scientific passages — if length, width, and depth are all mentioned, it is three-dimensional.
Detailed studies of atmospheric streams have been made over
View Solution
The passage states that abundant radio-sonic data is available over the Northern Hemisphere, which allows for detailed mapping and forecasting of jet streams. Europe, being in the Northern Hemisphere, has had detailed studies, unlike regions like Antarctica where upper-air data is still sparse.
- Options (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect as the passage does not mention detailed studies in those regions.
Quick Tip: Link geographic references in the question to the specific regions discussed in the passage.
The atmospheric jet stream consists of
View Solution
By definition, the World Meteorological Organization describes a jet stream as a strong, narrow air current concentrated along a nearly horizontal axis in the upper troposphere or stratosphere.
- Option (a) is incorrect because clouds are not the defining component of jet streams.
- Option (b) is unrelated to jet streams.
- Option (d) confuses aircraft effects with natural atmospheric currents.
Quick Tip: Always check for the passage’s explicit definition — these usually give the direct answer to “consists of” questions.
According to present knowledge, jet streams are caused when
View Solution
The passage describes jet streams forming in regions where tropical air meets polar and arctic air, which have vastly different temperatures. This temperature contrast creates strong pressure gradients, leading to the formation of jet streams.
- Option (a) is incomplete because it omits the tropical air component.
- Option (c) is misleading — speed difference is a result, not the primary cause.
- Option (d) refers to weather effects, not the cause of jet streams.
Quick Tip: In cause-and-effect questions, distinguish between what triggers the phenomenon and what results from it.
Jet streams affect air-traffic by
I. delaying flights.
II. Increased fuel consumption.
III. Their propensity to cause accidents.
IV. Damaging the air frame.
View Solution
The passage mentions that jet streams can increase fuel consumption (II) due to stronger headwinds and can cause accidents (III) through clear air turbulence (CAT).
- It does not say they delay flights (I) — eastbound flights can even be faster due to tailwinds.
- There is no mention of damaging the airframe (IV).
Thus, only II and III are correct.
Quick Tip: Be precise — only include effects explicitly mentioned in the passage.
The summer monsoon over India is caused by
View Solution
The passage specifically links the tropical easterly jet stream over Southeast Asia, India, and Africa during summer to weather disturbances that bring heavy monsoon rainfall.
- Options (a) and (c) are not directly relevant.
- Option (b) refers to subtropical jet streams, which are linked to fair weather, not monsoons.
Quick Tip: When multiple jet streams are described, match the specific type to the correct seasonal/weather effect.
The result of the Subtropical Jet Stream is
View Solution
The passage clearly states that the Subtropical Jet Stream lies over the subtropical high-pressure belt and is associated with subsidence motions, leading to fair weather.
- Option (a) refers to cyclones, which are associated with the Polar-Front Jet Stream.
- Option (c) is not specific to the subtropical stream.
- Option (d) refers to the strongest winds near Japan, which are in the polar front region.
Quick Tip: Match the correct jet stream type to its weather pattern — subtropical equals fair weather, polar-front equals storms/cyclones.
The areas most prone to salinization are
View Solution
The passage explains that salinization occurs most often in irrigated agriculture when drainage is inadequate. In flat lands irrigated from reservoirs, water tends to accumulate, and due to poor drainage, it evaporates leaving salts behind. Over time, these salts build up to harmful levels in the soil surface.
- Option (a) is incorrect because the problem is not specifically tied to well-water but to poor drainage.
- Option (b) relates to nutrient depletion and soil structure, not salinization.
- Option (c) refers to forest areas which are not discussed in the context of salinization.
Thus, option (d) is directly supported by the passage.
Quick Tip: For environmental process questions, match the exact condition (e.g., flat irrigated land with poor drainage) described in the passage.
The most appropriate title to this passage is
View Solution
The passage covers multiple causes of soil infertility: natural exhaustion of nutrients, overuse of land without rotation, and salinization from poor drainage. It also details remedies such as organic and chemical fertilizers, crop rotation, and drainage solutions. The scope is clearly broader than erosion or volcanic agriculture, making (d) the most fitting title.
- Options (a), (b), and (c) each focus on only one part of the passage, while the correct answer encompasses the full scope.
Quick Tip: For title questions, choose the option that covers the entire scope of the passage rather than a single example.
Natural fertility exhausts most quickly in
View Solution
The passage states that most forest soils, especially in humid tropics, quickly lose their fertility after cultivation because nutrients are rapidly depleted. This leads to the need for shifting cultivation or abandonment of land until natural vegetation restores the soil.
- Option (a) is incorrect because river valleys often get fertile silt deposits.
- Option (c) is incorrect because volcanic ash replenishes fertility.
- Option (d) is not mentioned in the passage.
Quick Tip: When identifying “most quickly,” focus on the area described as having the fastest decline or most severe problem in the passage.
The factor that can restore fertility to the soil not mentioned in the passage is
View Solution
The passage mentions fertility restoration through river alluvium, bacterial nitrogen fixation (via legumes), and the use of organic manure. Lightning-induced nitrogen fixation is not mentioned at all.
Thus, option (c) is correct.
Quick Tip: Check each option against the text — if one is completely absent, it’s likely the correct choice for “not mentioned” questions.
Crop rotation helps to
I. increase the farmer’s seasonal income.
II. preserve soil condition.
III. desalinate the soil.
IV. destroy pests.
View Solution
According to the passage, crop rotation preserves soil condition (II) by maintaining structure and nutrients, and prevents build-up of pests specific to one crop type (IV).
- Increasing seasonal income (I) is not discussed.
- Desalination (III) relates to irrigation and drainage, not crop rotation.
Therefore, only II and IV are correct.
Quick Tip: Filter each listed effect through the passage content — keep only those explicitly connected to the concept in question.
One of the characteristics of agricultural land in Nile basin is
View Solution
The passage says that the Nile's annual flooding deposits a rich layer of silt over the soil, restoring its fertility. This means the soil gains nutritive minerals.
Options (a), (b), and (c) are not supported by the text.
Quick Tip: For geography-based factual questions, locate the exact regional reference in the passage.
Plants with nodules on their roots are known as
View Solution
The passage explains that legumes (such as clover and alfalfa) have root nodules containing bacteria that fix nitrogen, helping restore soil fertility.
Options (a), (b), and (d) do not describe plants with nitrogen-fixing root nodules.
Quick Tip: Match specific plant traits in the question to botanical terms mentioned in the passage.
The author’s attitude towards the application of scientism to the social sciences is best described as one of
View Solution
The passage strongly critiques scientism’s attempt to treat the social sciences like the physical sciences. The author calls the analogy between the natural and social worlds “mistaken” and argues that this approach has actually retarded human mastery of the social world. Such statements are clearly critical rather than neutral or approving.
- Option (a) “committed scrutiny” implies a neutral investigative stance, which is not the case.
- Option (b) “dismissal” is too extreme; the author critiques the approach but does not completely reject all scientific inquiry.
- Option (d) “approval” is the opposite of the author’s tone.
Quick Tip: Identify the tone by looking for words like “mistaken,” “fallacious,” or “invalidated” — these indicate criticism rather than approval.
According to the author, causes and effects in the social world are
View Solution
The author points out that in the social sphere there is no single cause-effect certainty as in the natural sciences. A single cause can lead to many effects, and the same effect can arise from many different causes. This complexity makes causes and effects in the social world difficult to identify or predict.
- Option (a) is wrong — they are related, but in complex ways.
- Option (c) is wrong because the author says they cannot be manipulated at will like physical phenomena.
- Option (d) is directly refuted in the passage.
Quick Tip: In cause-effect questions, check whether the author emphasizes simplicity or complexity; here, the emphasis is clearly on unpredictability.
Which of the following statements about scientism is best supported by the passage?
View Solution
The author explains that scientism mistakenly applies the methods of the natural sciences to the social sciences, where cause-effect relationships are not as straightforward. This makes scientism ineffective in fully explaining social behaviour.
- Option (a) is contradicted — the author says it has retarded mastery of the social world.
- Option (b) is inaccurate; the problem is not superficial concern but inappropriate application.
- Option (d) is irrelevant — the criticism is about its application to the social sciences, not the natural sciences.
Quick Tip: For “best supported” questions, match the statement to the main criticism or praise found in the passage.
As is used in the passage, the term ‘scientism’ can best be defined as
View Solution
The author describes scientism as the reasoning that because causality works in the physical world, it should also be applied to the social world — implying that the methods of the physical sciences are universal. This matches option (a).
- Options (b), (c), and (d) are unrelated to the definition given in the passage.
Quick Tip: When defining a term, look for where the author first introduces it and explains its application.
In the passage, the author is most concerned with doing which of the following?
View Solution
The entire passage critiques the idea of applying physical science methods to the social sciences, showing why this analogy is flawed and counterproductive. This is an attack on a specific methodological approach rather than a promotion of reason over superstition or a superiority argument.
- Option (a) is unrelated.
- Option (c) contradicts the author’s point — he argues against controlling social behaviour via scientism.
- Option (d) is not discussed.
Quick Tip: Main concern questions require identifying the central argument or critique that ties the whole passage together.
The passage is most likely directed towards an audience of
View Solution
The passage uses clear, non-technical language to explain complex motions of the Earth, such as precession, mutation, and revolution, using analogies like an “ill-spun top” and “dumb-bell.” This indicates the intended audience is general readers with little technical knowledge of astronomy, rather than specialists.
- Options (a), (b), and (c) imply a technical or professional audience, but the passage does not use highly specialized jargon or focus on those fields.
Quick Tip: When determining the audience, consider the vocabulary level, use of analogies, and the assumed background knowledge in the passage.
Which of the following best describes the main subject of the passage?
View Solution
The passage describes multiple motions: rotation on its axis, precession, mutation, revolution around the Sun, movement of the Earth-Moon system, and the Sun’s motion through space. This makes “various types of the Earth’s motions” the most accurate description of the main subject.
- Option (b) is too narrow and historical.
- Option (c) focuses only on one cause.
- Option (d) addresses only one type of motion, not all discussed.
Quick Tip: Main subject questions should be answered with the most inclusive option that covers the whole passage.
The passage indicates that a single cycle of which of the following motions is completed in the shortest period of time?
View Solution
The Earth’s rotation on its axis takes approximately 24 hours, making it the shortest cycle among the motions described.
- Mutation takes 18.6 years per cycle.
- Precession takes 25,800 years.
- The Earth-Moon dumb-bell movement around the Sun takes one year.
Quick Tip: For time-comparison questions, identify the period stated for each motion and pick the smallest.
Which of the following techniques does the author use in order to make the descriptions of motion clear?
I. Comparison with familiar objects.
II. Reference of geometric forms.
III. Allusions to the works of other authors.
View Solution
The author compares Earth’s axial wobble to an “ill-spun top” (I) and refers to geometric forms like a cone for precession (II). There are no allusions to other authors (III). Therefore, I and II are correct.
Quick Tip: Look for analogies and shapes mentioned in descriptive passages — they help identify techniques used for clarity.
The passage has most probably been taken from a book on
View Solution
The passage discusses the structure, types, and functions of connective tissues in the human body, which falls under the study of physiology — the branch of biology dealing with the functions and mechanisms in living systems.
- Neurology (a) is about the nervous system.
- Nutrition (b) is about food and nutrients.
- Calisthenics (d) is exercise-related.
Quick Tip: Match the content’s subject matter to the correct academic discipline for “source of passage” questions.
Mesenteries are
View Solution
The passage explicitly states that mesenteries are thin sheets of connective tissues that suspend some organs from the wall of a body cavity.
- Option (a) refers to adipose tissue, which is different.
- Option (b) describes parenchyma, not mesenteries.
- Option (d) is unrelated to mesenteries.
Quick Tip: For definition-based questions, quote or paraphrase directly from the passage.
Through peri-vascular spaces exchange takes place between
View Solution
The passage states that all nutrient materials and waste products exchanged between the organs and the blood must traverse peri-vascular spaces occupied by connective tissue. This means the exchange is between blood and organs.
- Option (c) refers to what is exchanged, but the question asks “between which,” so the correct entities are blood and organs.
Quick Tip: Pay attention to whether the question asks about the process itself or the entities involved in it.
The connective tissue in which fat is stored is called
View Solution
Adipose tissue is specialized for the synthesis and storage of energy-rich reserves of fat or lipid, as stated directly in the passage.
- Options (b) and (c) are different connective tissue types with other functions.
Quick Tip: In biology passages, use the exact terminology from the text for structure-function matches.
The connective tissues originate in the
View Solution
The passage says connective tissues are derived from the mesenchyme, a meshwork of stellate cells developing in the middle layer of the early embryo. Therefore, they originate in the embryo.
Quick Tip: Trace the origin in the passage’s description — embryonic sources are often key in anatomy questions.
Some instances of connective tissues are
I. Cartilage
II. Stroma
III. Lipid
IV. Synovia
View Solution
The passage lists cartilage, stroma, lipid (as stored in adipose tissue), and synovial membrane (synovia) as connective tissues. Therefore, all four given are correct examples.
Quick Tip: For “all that apply” type questions, confirm each listed example is mentioned in the passage as part of the category.
The tissue which enables smooth gliding movements of neighbouring surfaces is
View Solution
The passage explains that cartilage covers articular surfaces of bones at joints, giving them a firm consistency that permits smooth gliding movements between opposed surfaces.
- Synovial membrane lubricates joints but is not the direct surface enabler of gliding.
Quick Tip: Distinguish between the tissue that performs the function directly and those that support the function indirectly.
CAT Previous Year Question Papers
Candidates preparing for CAT exam are recommended to solve CAT previous year question papers to improve their time management and problem-solving skills.
| CAT 2022 Question Papers | CAT 2021 Question Papers | CAT 2020 Question Papers |
| CAT 2019 Question Papers | CAT 2018 Question Papers | CAT 2017 Question Papers |
Comments