Delhi CET 2019 Test 1 Question Paper(Available):Download Solution PDF With Answer Key

The Delhi Common Entrance Test (Delhi CET) 2019, organized by the Department of Training and Technical Education (DTTE), Government of NCT of Delhi, included Test 1, which was specifically designed for candidates seeking admission into full-time diploma programs in Engineering, Technology, and Occupational courses offered by various polytechnic institutions across Delhi.

The Delhi CET 2019 Test 1 was conducted in offline mode and consisted of 150 multiple-choice questions from Mathematics (50 questions), Physics (40), Chemistry (30), Biology (15), and English (15), with a total duration of 2 hours and 30 minutes; each correct answer awarded 4 marks, while 1 mark was deducted for every incorrect response.

Delhi CET Question Paper With Answer Key

Delhi CET Question Paper with Answer Key 2019 download iconDownload Check Solution

Delhi CET 2019 Test 1 Question Paper With Solutions

Mathematics

Question 1:

The area of the triangle with vertices \((0, 0)\), \((6, 0)\), and \((0, 5)\) is:

  • (1) \(11\) Square units
  • (2) \(12\) Square units
  • (3) \(13\) Square units
  • (4) \(15\) Square units

Question 2:

The value of \( p \) for which the points \((-5, 1)\), \((1, p)\), and \((4, -2)\) are collinear is:

  • (1) \( 1 \)
  • (2) \( -2 \)
  • (3) \( -1 \)
  • (4) \( 3 \)

Question 3:

If \((1 + Cos A)(1 - Cos A) = \frac{3}{4}\), then the value of Sec A is :

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 4

Question 4:

If \(tan \theta + \frac{1}{tan \theta} = 2\), then the value of \(tan^2 \theta + \frac{1}{tan^2 \theta}\) is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 3
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 5

Question 5:

\( \sin 2A = 2 \sin A \) is true when \( A \) is equal to:

  • (1) \( 0^\circ \)
  • (2) \( 30^\circ \)
  • (3) \( 45^\circ \)
  • (4) \( 60^\circ \)

Question 6:

If \(\sec(7^\circ - 2\alpha) = \csc(5\alpha - 7^\circ)\), then the value of \(\alpha\) is:

  • (1) \( 60^\circ \)
  • (2) \( 50^\circ \)
  • (3) \( 40^\circ \)
  • (4) \( 30^\circ \)

Question 7:

The angle of elevation of a 15 m high tower from a point 15 m away from its foot is:

  • (1) \(30^\circ\)
  • (2) \(45^\circ\)
  • (3) \(60^\circ\)
  • (4) \(90^\circ\)

Question 8:

If the angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of the tower is \(30^\circ\), then the height of the tower is :

  • (1) \(9\sqrt{3}\) m
  • (2) \(10\sqrt{3}\) m
  • (3) \(11\sqrt{3}\) m
  • (4) \(13\sqrt{3}\) m

Question 9:

A tangent PQ at a point P of a circle of radius 5 cm meets a line through the centre O at a point Q So that OQ=12 cm, height PQ is :

  • (1) 12 cm
  • (2) 13 cm
  • (3) 8.5 cm
  • (4) \(\sqrt{119} \, cm\)

Question 10:

If tangents PA and PB from a point P to a circle with centre O are inclined to each other at angle of \(80^\circ\) in the fig, then \(\angle POA\) is equal to :


  • (1) \(50^\circ\)
  • (2) \(60^\circ\)
  • (3) \(70^\circ\)
  • (4) \(80^\circ\)

Question 11:

To draw a pair of tangents to a circle which are inclined to each other at an angle of \( 50^\circ \), it is required to draw tangents at end points of those two radii of the circle. What should be the angle between these two radii?

  • (1) \( 150^\circ \)
  • (2) \( 140^\circ \)
  • (3) \( 130^\circ \)
  • (4) \( 120^\circ \)

Question 12:

If the perimeter of a circle is equal to that of a square, then find the ratio of their areas.

  • (1) \( 11:14 \)
  • (2) \( 5:6 \)
  • (3) \( 14:11 \)
  • (4) \( 7:8 \)

Question 13:

The length of an arc of a circle of radius 12 cm is \(10\pi\). Find the central angle of this arc.

  • (1) \(160^\circ\)
  • (2) \(150^\circ\)
  • (3) \(140^\circ\)
  • (4) \(130^\circ\)

Question 14:

If a cone of height h and a sphere have same radii r and same volume, then r:h will be:

  • (1) 4:1
  • (2) 1:4
  • (3) 2:3
  • (4) 3:2

Question 15:

The empirical relationship among the three measures of central tendency (median, mode, and mean) is:

  • (1) \( 2 \cdot Median = 3 \cdot Mode + Mean \)
  • (2) \( Median = Mode + 2 \cdot Mean \)
  • (3) \( 2 \cdot Mode = 3 \cdot Median + Mean \)
  • (4) \( 2 \cdot Mean = 3 \cdot Median + 2 \cdot Mode \)

Question 16:

If the median of the series exceeds the mean by 3, then the number by which the mode exceeds its mean is:

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 11

Question 17:

A student observes the following spinner. What is the probability of obtaining the red colour.


  • (1) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{7}{3}\)

Question 18:

Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event?

  • (1) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (2) -1.5
  • (3) 20%
  • (4) 0.7

Question 19:

One card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. The probability of getting a face card is:

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{26} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{3}{13} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3}{26} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{1}{52} \)

Question 20:

A dice is thrown twice. The probability that 5 will not come up either time is:

  • (1) \( \frac{11}{36} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{25}{36} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{13}{36} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{17}{36} \)

Question 21:

An irrational number between 2 and 2.5 is:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{11}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{5}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{22.5}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{12.5}\)

Question 22:

The value of m for which \(\left[\left\{\left(\frac{1}{7^2}\right)^{-2}\right\}^{-\frac{1}{3}}\right]^{\frac{1}{4}} = 7^m\) is:

  • (1) \(-\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
  • (3) -3
  • (4) 2

Question 23:

If \(\sqrt{13 - a\sqrt{10}} = \sqrt{8} + \sqrt{5}\) then a = .........

  • (1) -5
  • (2) -6
  • (3) -4
  • (4) -2

Question 24:

If \( \frac{a}{b} + \frac{b}{a} = 1 \), then \( a^3 + b^3 = \)

  • (1) \( 1 \)
  • (2) \( -1 \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (4) \( 0 \)

Question 25:

The value of \( \frac{(2.3)^3 - 0.027}{(2.3)^2 + 0.69 + 0.09} \) is:

  • (1) \( 2 \)
  • (2) \( 3 \)
  • (3) \( 2.327 \)
  • (4) \( 2.273 \)

Question 26:

If \((x^{140} + 2x^{151} + K)\) is divisible by \((x+1)\) then the value of K is :

  • (1) 1
  • (2) -3
  • (3) 2
  • (4) -2

Question 27:

If the graph of the equation \( 4x + 3y = 12 \) cuts the coordinate axes at \( A \) and \( B \), then the hypotenuse of right triangle \( \triangle AOB \) is of length:

  • (1) \( 4 \) units
  • (2) \( 3 \) units
  • (3) \( 5 \) units
  • (4) None of these

Question 28:

Two points having the same abscissae but different ordinates lie on:

  • (1) x-axis
  • (2) y-axis
  • (3) a line parallel to the y-axis
  • (4) a line parallel to the x-axis

Question 29:

Two complementary angles are such that two times the measure of one is equal to three times the measure of the other. The measure of the smaller angle is :

  • (1) \(45^\circ\)
  • (2) \(30^\circ\)
  • (3) \(36^\circ\)
  • (4) None of these

Question 30:

If one angle of a parallelogram is \(24^\circ\) less than twice the smallest angle, then the measure of the largest angle of the parallelogram is :

  • (1) \(176^\circ\)
  • (2) \(68^\circ\)
  • (3) \(112^\circ\)
  • (4) \(102^\circ\)

Question 31:

In figure, O is the centre of the circle such that \(\angle AOC=130^\circ\), then \(\angle ABC=\dots\dots\)


  • (1) \(130^\circ\)
  • (2) \(115^\circ\)
  • (3) \(65^\circ\)
  • (4) \(165^\circ\)

Question 32:

The sum of the length, breadth and depth of a cuboid is 19 cm and its diagonal is \(5\sqrt{5}\) cm. Its surface area is :

  • (1) \(361 cm^2\)
  • (2) \(125 cm^2\)
  • (3) \(236 cm^2\)
  • (4) \(486 cm^2\)

Question 33:

Vertical cross-section of a right circular cylinder is always a :

  • (1) Square
  • (2) Rectangle
  • (3) Rhombus
  • (4) Trapezium

Question 34:

The ratio between the volume of a sphere and volume of a circumscribing right circular cylinder is :

  • (1) 2 : 1
  • (2) 1 : 1
  • (3) 2 : 3
  • (4) 1 : 2

Question 35:

If the ratio of mode and median of a certain data is \(6:5\), then find the ratio of its mean and median :

  • (1) 3 : 5
  • (2) 3 : 10
  • (3) 9 : 10
  • (4) 10 : 9

Question 36:

If \(\sqrt{2^n} = 1024\) then \(3^{2\left(\frac{n}{4}-1\right)} = \dots\dots\dots\)

  • (1) 3
  • (2) 9
  • (3) 27
  • (4) 81

Question 37:

If \(3x = a + b + c\), then the value of \([(x-a)^3+(x-b)^3+(x-c)^3-3(x-a)(x-b)(x-c)]\) is :

  • (1) \(a+b+c\)
  • (2) \((a-b)(b-c)(c-a)\)
  • (3) 0
  • (4) None of these

Question 38:

The percentage increase in the area of a triangle if its each side is doubled will be:

  • (1) \( 200% \)
  • (2) \( 300% \)
  • (3) \( 400% \)
  • (4) None of these

Question 39:

If \( \ell \) is the length of a diagonal of a cube of volume \( V \), then:

  • (1) \( 3V = \ell^3 \)
  • (2) \( \sqrt{3} V = \ell^3 \)
  • (3) \( 3\sqrt{3} V = 2\ell^3 \)
  • (4) \( 3\sqrt{3} V = \ell^3 \)

Question 40:

The algebraic sum of the deviations of a set of 'n' values from their mean is :

  • (1) 0
  • (2) n-1
  • (3) n
  • (4) n+1

Question 41:

H.C.F. of 85 and 119 can be expressed in the form of \(85x-153\). Value of \(x\) is :

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4

Question 42:

If \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) are the zeros of the polynomial, such that \( \alpha + \beta = 6 \) and \( \alpha \beta = 4 \), then the quadratic polynomial is:

  • (1) \( x^2 - x - 6 \)
  • (2) \( x^2 + x - 6 \)
  • (3) \( x^2 - 6x + 4 \)
  • (4) \( x^2 - 6x + 4 \)

Question 43:

The value of \( k \) for which the equations \( 6x - 2y = 3 \) and \( kx - y = 2 \) have infinitely many solutions is:

  • (1) \( -3 \)
  • (2) \( 3 \)
  • (3) No value
  • (4) \( \frac{3}{2} \)

Question 44:

If \(x^2-5x+1=0\), then \(\left(x+\frac{1}{x}\right)\) will be equal to :

  • (1) 10
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 5

Question 45:

The sum of first 5 multiples of 3 is :

  • (1) 45
  • (2) 55
  • (3) 65
  • (4) 75

Question 46:

If 2k, 3k-1, 8 are in A.P. Then the value of k is :

  • (1) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{5}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{7}{2}\)

Question 47:

What is the sum of first n natural numbers ?

  • (1) \(\frac{n(n+3)}{2}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{n^2(n+1)}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{n(n^2+1)}{2}\)

Question 48:

In a right triangle, the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the ………… of the square of the other two sides.

  • (1) Product
  • (2) Sum
  • (3) Difference
  • (4) Ratio

Question 49:

A ladder is placed against a wall such that its foot is at a distance of 2.5 m from the wall and its top reaches 6 m above the ground. Then the length of the ladder is:

  • (1) 3.5 m
  • (2) 4.5 m
  • (3) 8.5 m
  • (4) 6.5 m

Question 50:

If a line segment joining the points P and Q \((3, -4)\) is bisected at origin, then the coordinates of P are :

  • (1) \((4, -3)\)
  • (2) \((2, 4)\)
  • (3) \((-3, 4)\)
  • (4) \((4, 3)\)

Physics

Question 51:

Electric current produces :

  • (1) Heating effect
  • (2) Magnetic effect
  • (3) Both 1 & 2
  • (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (3) Both 1 & 2
View Solution

Step 1: Analyze the effects of electric current.

Electric current is the flow of electric charge. When current flows through a conductor, it produces several effects.

Effect 1: Heating Effect of Electric Current (Joule Heating)

When electric current flows through a conductor, the moving electrons collide with the atoms or ions of the conductor. These collisions transfer kinetic energy to the atoms, causing them to vibrate more rapidly and leading to an increase in the temperature of the conductor. This phenomenon is known as the heating effect of electric current or Joule heating. Examples include electric heaters, incandescent light bulbs, and electric kettles.

Effect 2: Magnetic Effect of Electric Current

Danish physicist Hans Christian Ørsted discovered in 1820 that an electric current produces a magnetic field around the conductor. This means that a current-carrying wire behaves like a magnet and can deflect a compass needle. This effect is the basis for electromagnets, electric motors, generators, and many other electrical devices.

Step 3: Evaluate the options.

(1) Heating effect: This is a well-known effect of electric current (Joule heating).

(2) Magnetic effect: This is also a well-known effect of electric current (Ørsted's discovery).

(3) Both 1 & 2: Since electric current produces both heating and magnetic effects, this option is correct.

(4) None of the above: This is incorrect because both effects are produced.

Step 4: Conclude the answer.

Electric current produces both heating and magnetic effects.

(3) Both 1 & 2 Quick Tip: Electric current has several important effects. The heating effect (Joule heating) is due to the resistance of the conductor, while the magnetic effect (Ørsted's discovery) is fundamental to electromagnetism and the operation of motors and generators.


Question 52:

Which one is not true for magnetic field lines ?

  • (1) They do not intersect each other.
  • (2) Outside the magnet, they are from North pole to South pole.
  • (3) Outside the magnet, they are from South pole to North pole.
  • (4) They form closed loop.

Question 53:

At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit is :

  • (1) Reduces
  • (2) Remains constant
  • (3) Increases heavily
  • (4) Vary continuously

Question 54:

The device used for producing electric current is called:

  • (1) Generator
  • (2) Galvanometer
  • (3) Ammeter
  • (4) Motor

Question 55:

The north and south poles of a magnet:

  • (1) are of different strength
  • (2) are of equal strength
  • (3) can be separated by cutting the magnet
  • (4) None of the above

Question 56:

Strength of magnetic field produced by a current carrying solenoid depends upon :

  • (1) Number of turns
  • (2) Current
  • (3) Nature of core
  • (4) All the above

Question 57:

An electromagnet is :

  • (1) A permanent magnet
  • (2) A temporary magnet
  • (3) Both 1 & 2
  • (4) None of the above

Question 58:

A mirror forms a virtual and diminished image. It is a :

  • (1) Convex mirror
  • (2) Plane mirror
  • (3) Concave mirror
  • (4) None of the above

Question 59:

Focal length of a plane mirror is :

  • (1) Infinite
  • (2) Zero
  • (3) 1 m
  • (4) 5 cm

Question 60:

A convex lens forms the image of sun at :

  • (1) Focus
  • (2) Centre of curvature
  • (3) Between focus and centre of curvature
  • (4) No image is formed

Question 61:

Speed of light in vacuum is:

  • (1) \( 8 \times 10^3 \, m/s \)
  • (2) \( 8 \times 10^6 \, m/s \)
  • (3) \( 3 \times 10^6 \, m/s \)
  • (4) \( 3 \times 10^8 \, m/s \)

Question 62:

The cause of twinkling of stars is:

  • (1) Dispersion
  • (2) Scattering
  • (3) Atmospheric refraction
  • (4) Reflection

Question 63:

Blue colour of sky is due to :

  • (1) Reflection
  • (2) Scattering
  • (3) Dispersion
  • (4) Refraction

Question 64:

Myopia is corrected by using :

  • (1) Concave lens
  • (2) Convex lens
  • (3) Cylindrical lens
  • (4) Any lens

Question 65:

For which colour of light, the angle of deviation by a prism is maximum ?

  • (1) Red
  • (2) Yellow
  • (3) Blue
  • (4) Violet

Question 66:

What does the odometer of vehicle measure?

  • (1) Speed
  • (2) Distance
  • (3) Acceleration
  • (4) Velocity

Question 67:

An object travels 25 m in 5 s and then travels 25 m in 3 s. What is the average speed of the object?

  • (1) \( 4.25 \, m/s^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( 5.25 \, m/s^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( 6.25 \, m/s^{-1} \)
  • (4) \( 5.33 \, m/s^{-1} \)

Question 68:

A train is moving at a constant speed of \( 54 \, km/h \). What is the speed of the train in \( m/s \)?

  • (1) \( 5 \, m/s^{-1} \)
  • (2) \( 15 \, m/s^{-1} \)
  • (3) \( 25 \, m/s^{-1} \)
  • (4) \( 35 \, m/s^{-1} \)

Question 69:

What is the 'SI' unit of acceleration ?

  • (1) KMSec\(^{-1}\)
  • (2) KM/Sec\(^{-1}\)
  • (3) MS\(^{-1}\)
  • (4) MS\(^{-2}\)

Question 70:

In this graph which line (A or B) show high velocity :

  • (1) A line
  • (2) B-line
  • (3) Both are same
  • (4) None of these

Question 71:

An object mass is 'M' and Velocity is 'V'. What is the momentum of the object :

  • (1) 2 MV
  • (2) MV
  • (3) MV\(^2\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{2}\)MV\(^2\)

Question 72:

When we beat a carpet by stick the dust particles come out. Which law of motion works here ?

  • (1) First law of Motion
  • (2) Second law of Motion
  • (3) Third law of Motion
  • (4) None of these

Question 73:

An object has a mass of \( 120 \, kg \) on Earth. What is the mass of the object on the Moon?

  • (1) \( 60 \, kg \)
  • (2) \( 120 \, kg \)
  • (3) \( 20 \, kg \)
  • (4) \( 10 \, kg \)

Question 74:

If we apply \( 10 \, N \) of force on an object, then the acceleration produced is \( 2.5 \, m/s^2 \). What is the mass of the object?

  • (1) \( 4 \, kg \)
  • (2) \( 8 \, kg \)
  • (3) \( 12 \, kg \)
  • (4) \( 16 \, kg \)

Question 75:

If we walk on Ice its not easy for us why?

  • (1) Low friction
  • (2) High friction
  • (3) Zero friction
  • (4) None of these

Question 76:

A naughty boy hit a mango tree by stone then a mongo fall down. Why the mango fall down :

  • (1) Due to gravetional force of earth
  • (2) Due to friction
  • (3) Due to acceleration
  • (4) None of these

Question 77:

Universal Law of gravitation is :

  • (1) \(F = G \frac{Mm}{d^2}\)
  • (2) \(F = G \frac{m_1 m_2}{d^2}\)
  • (3) \(F = mg\)
  • (4) 1 and 2 both

Question 78:

1 KWh is equal to :

  • (1) \(3.6 \times 10^6\) J
  • (2) \(3.6 \times 10^9\) J
  • (3) \(3.6 \times 10^{12}\) J
  • (4) \(3.6 \times 10^{7}\) J

Question 79:

Sound can move in:

  • (1) Solid
  • (2) Liquid
  • (3) Vacuum
  • (4) 1 and 2 both

Question 80:

What is the relation between sound velocity (\( V \)), frequency (\( \gamma \)), and wavelength (\( \lambda \))?

  • (1) \( V = \gamma \lambda \)
  • (2) \( \gamma = \frac{V}{\lambda} \)
  • (3) \( \lambda = \frac{V}{\gamma} \)
  • (4) All of these

Question 81:

The number of electrons constituting one coulomb of charge :

  • (1) \(6.25 \times 10^{18}\)
  • (2) \(1.6 \times 10^{-19}\)
  • (3) \(7.25 \times 10^{23}\)
  • (4) \(6.23 \times 10^{-23}\)

Question 82:

The resistance of an ideal Voltmeter is :

  • (1) \(100 \, \Omega\)
  • (2) Infinite
  • (3) Low
  • (4) Zero

Question 83:

V-I graph for four materials A, B, C \& D are shown in fig. The best material to make live wire of domestic wiring is :


  • (1) A
  • (2) B
  • (3) C
  • (4) D

Question 84:

The resistivity of a conductor depends upon :

  • (1) Area of cross-section of conductor
  • (2) Length of conductor
  • (3) 1 and 2 both
  • (4) None of the above

Question 85:

If the diameter of a wire of \( 1 \, \Omega \) is tripled, then its resistance will become:

  • (1) \( 9 \, \Omega \)
  • (2) \( \frac{1}{9} \, \Omega \)
  • (3) \( \frac{1}{3} \, \Omega \)
  • (4) \( 3 \, \Omega \)

Question 86:

On increasing the temperature, the resistance of conductors:

  • (1) Increases
  • (2) Decreases
  • (3) Becomes zero
  • (4) None of the above

Question 87:

The current in \(7.2 \, \Omega\) resistor is :


  • (1) 1.5 A
  • (2) 2 A
  • (3) 1 A
  • (4) 0.5 A

Question 88:

The reading of the voltmeter is :


  • (1) 4 V
  • (2) 3 V
  • (3) 8 V
  • (4) 6 V

Question 89:

Which of the following does not represent electric power in the circuit ?

  • (1) I\(^2\)R
  • (2) IR\(^2\)
  • (3) VI
  • (4) \(\frac{V^2}{R}\)

Question 90:

Two identical resistance wires are first connected in series and then in parallel in an electric circuit. The ratio of heat produced in the two cases will be :

  • (1) 1:2
  • (2) 2:1
  • (3) 1:4
  • (4) 4:1

Chemistry

Question 91:

Rancidity is due to oxidation of:

  • (1) Oil
  • (2) Fats
  • (3) Oil and Fats
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (3) Oil and Fats
View Solution

Step 1: Understand Rancidity.

Rancidity is the process of degradation of fats and oils due to oxidation. This occurs when unsaturated fatty acids in oils and fats react with oxygen in the presence of heat, light, or catalysts, leading to the formation of unpleasant odors and flavors.

Step 2: Analyze Each Option.

Option (1): Oil — Incorrect, as rancidity affects both oils and fats, not just oils.

Option (2): Fats — Incorrect, as rancidity affects both oils and fats, not just fats.

Option (3): Oil and Fats — Correct, as rancidity is caused by the oxidation of both oils and fats.

Option (4): None of these — Incorrect, as options (1) and (2) are partially correct, but the most accurate answer includes both oils and fats.

Step 3: Final Answer. \(\)
(3) Oil and Fats Quick Tip: Rancidity is a chemical reaction that primarily affects unsaturated fats and oils. It is a form of oxidation that leads to the breakdown of these lipids, resulting in undesirable changes in flavor, odor, and texture. Both oils and fats are susceptible to this process.


Question 92:

The reaction \( CuSO_4 + Zn \rightarrow ZnSO_4 + Cu \) is an example of a:

  • (1) Combination reaction
  • (2) Double displacement reaction
  • (3) Decomposition reaction
  • (4) Displacement reaction

Question 93:

FeSO\(_4\) decomposes on heating into :

  • (1) 'Fe\(_2\)O\(_3\)'
  • (2) 'Fe\(_2\)O\(_3\)' & 'SO\(_2\)'
  • (3) 'Fe\(_2\)O\(_3\)' & 'SO\(_3\)'
  • (4) 'Fe\(_2\)O\(_3\)', 'SO\(_2\)' and 'SO\(_3\)'

Question 94:

Propane, with the molecular formula C\(_3\)H\(_8\) has :

  • (1) '6' Covalent bonds
  • (2) '7' Covalent bonds
  • (3) '10' Covalent bonds
  • (4) '8' Covalent bonds

Question 95:

Two successive compounds, having same functional group. They have a difference of :

  • (1) -CH\(_2\) Unit
  • (2) -CH\(_3\) Unit
  • (3) -C\(_2\)H\(_2\) Unit
  • (4) -CH\(_4\) Unit

Question 96:

Formula of Carboxylic group is :

  • (1) -CHO
  • (2) -COOH
  • (3) -COCH\(_3\)
  • (4) -OH

Question 97:

Triads rule was given by:

  • (1) Rutherford
  • (2) Dobereiner
  • (3) New Lands
  • (4) Rutherford and New Land

Question 98:

Which element has '2, 8, 1' Electronic configuration?

  • (1) K
  • (2) Mg
  • (3) Al
  • (4) Na

Question 99:

Mendeleev's Modren periodic law is based on :

  • (1) Atomic mass
  • (2) Atomic Number
  • (3) No. of Nutron's
  • (4) Atomic mass and atomic Number

Question 100:

SI unit of density is :

  • (1) Kg/cm\(^3\)
  • (2) Kg/m\(^3\)
  • (3) g/m\(^3\)
  • (4) g/cm\(^3\)

Question 101:

"Tyndall effect" will be shown by which of the following ?

  • (1) Distilled water
  • (2) Sugar solution
  • (3) Ethanol
  • (4) Starch solution

Question 102:

The formula of Calcium Carbonate is :

  • (1) MgCO\(_3\)
  • (2) Na\(_2\)CO\(_3\)
  • (3) CuCO\(_3\)
  • (4) CaCO\(_3\)

Question 103:

Choose the correct relationship: molar mass - common name - chemical formula from the following options.

  • (1) \( 22.5 \)-Ethyne-\( C_2H_2 \)
  • (2) \( 292.5 \)-Sulphur molecule-\( S_8 \)
  • (3) \( 36.5 \)-Hydrochloric acid-\( HCl \)
  • (4) \( 65.5 \)-Nitric acid-\( HNO_3 \)

Question 104:

What is the mass of \( 0.5 \) mole of oxygen atoms?

  • (1) \( 10 \, g \)
  • (2) \( 12 \, g \)
  • (3) \( 14 \, g \)
  • (4) \( 8 \, g \)

Question 105:

The Avogadro constant \(6.022140857 \times 10^{23}\) is defined as the number of atoms present in exactly 12 g of ..........

  • (1) Carbon-12
  • (2) Oxygen-16
  • (3) Nitrogen-14
  • (4) Carbon-14

Question 106:

The Law of Conservation of Mass-During a chemical reaction ..........

  • (1) the sum of the masses of all reactants is not equal to sum of masses of all products.
  • (2) the sum of masses of all reactants is equal to the sum of masses of all products.
  • (3) the sum of the masses of all reactants is equal to half of sum of masses of all products.
  • (4) the sum of masses of all reactants is equal to double of sum of masses of all products.

Question 107:

Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species A and B are given as under :





Choose the correct relationship between A and B ?

  • (1) A and B are Isotopes
  • (2) A and B are Isobars
  • (3) A and B are Isotones
  • (4) A and B are Isomers

Question 108:

Which one of the following is a correct electronic configuration of Ne atom ?

  • (1) 2,8
  • (2) 2,7
  • (3) 2,6
  • (4) 2,5

Question 109:

Which one of the following pairs is showing a correct isotopes of Cl atom?

  • (1) Chlorine. \(^{34}Cl\) and \(^{37}Cl\)
  • (2) Chlorine. \(^{35}Cl\) and \(^{36}Cl\)
  • (3) Chlorine. \(^{35}Cl\) and \(^{37}Cl\)
  • (4) Chlorine. \(^{35}Cl\) and \(^{35}Cl\)

Question 110:

The atomic number of an element is the same as the number of :

  • (1) Neutrons in the nucleus of its atom.
  • (2) sum of the number of protons and Neutrons in the nucleus of its atom.
  • (3) sum of the number of protons and electrons in the nucleus of its atom.
  • (4) protons in the nucleus of its atom.

Question 111:

Rutherford's alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of:

  • (1) atomic nucleus
  • (2) electron
  • (3) number of proton
  • (4) number of neutron

Question 112:

In which conditions rusting of iron takes place in presence of:

  • (1) 'air'
  • (2) \( H_2O \)
  • (3) 'air' and 'H\(_2\)O'
  • (4) Only 'N\(_2\)'

Question 113:

Which metals are kept in kerosene?

  • (1) Na & K
  • (2) Zn
  • (3) Cu
  • (4) Fe

Question 114:

Conductivity of metal's is due to :

  • (1) Free Electrons
  • (2) Ions
  • (3) atoms
  • (4) Nutrons

Question 115:

What is the formula of plaster of Paris?

  • (1) \( CaSO_4 \)
  • (2) \( CaSO_4 \cdot \frac{1}{2} H_2O \)
  • (3) \( CaSO_4 \cdot H_2O \)
  • (4) \( CaSO_3 \)

Question 116:

Bleaching Powder is mixed in drinking water. Why?

  • (1) To kill the germs
  • (2) As an oxidizing agent
  • (3) '1' & '2'
  • (4) None of these

Question 117:

Which acid is produced in our stomach ?

  • (1) HBr
  • (2) HCl
  • (3) H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)
  • (4) HNO\(_3\)

Question 118:

A Solution turns blue Litmus red, its pH is likely to be :

  • (1) 11
  • (2) 14
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 10

Question 119:

A Solution reacts with egg-shell to give CO\(_2\) gas, the Solution contains :

  • (1) Mg Cl\(_2\)
  • (2) Na Cl
  • (3) KCl
  • (4) HCl

Question 120:

What happens; When dilute 'HCl' is added to granulated 'Zn' ?

  • (1) 'H\(_2\)' gas and 'ZnCl\(_2\)' are Produced
  • (2) No Reaction Produced
  • (3) 'H\(_2\)O' and 'ZnO' are Produced
  • (4) H\(_2\)O and ZnSO\(_4\) are Produced

Question 121:

Among the following, what is used to check the rate of transpiration?

  • (1) Barometer
  • (2) Potometer
  • (3) Hygrometer
  • (4) Galvanometer

Question 122:

New plants grown up by using the tip of a plant is known as:

  • (1) Regeneration
  • (2) Tissue culture
  • (3) Grafting
  • (4) Layering

Question 123:

Respiration is a :

  • (1) Biochemical reaction
  • (2) Electro Chemical reaction
  • (3) Physical action
  • (4) None of these

Question 124:

The enzyme 'pepsin' is inactive in stomach without the presence of :

  • (1) Nitric Acid
  • (2) Hydrochloric Acid
  • (3) Acetic Acid
  • (4) Butyric Acid

Question 125:

Contraction of the protoplast of a plant cell as a result of loss of water from the cell is :

  • (1) Endocytosis
  • (2) Plasmolysis
  • (3) Exocytosis
  • (4) Lysis

Question 126:

Two cell organelles who has its own genetic material:

  • (1) Mitochondria and vacuoles
  • (2) Plastids and vacuoles
  • (3) Mitochondria and Plastids
  • (4) Endoplasmic Reticulum and Mitochondria

Question 127:

Plasma contains:

  • (1) Red Blood Cells, White Blood Cells, and Platelets.
  • (2) Red Blood Cells, Fats, Hormones, and Platelets.
  • (3) White Blood Cells, Fats, Hormones, and Platelets.
  • (4) Red Blood Cells, Plastids, and Platelets.

Question 128:

Name the type of epithelial tissue which forms the lining of kidney tubules and ducts of salivary glands:

  • (1) Cuboidal epithelium
  • (2) Stratified squamous epithelium
  • (3) Ciliated Columnar epithelium
  • (4) Glandular epithelium

Question 129:

Antedon (Feather Star) is an example of :

  • (1) Protochordata
  • (2) Echinodermata
  • (3) Mollusca
  • (4) Arthropoda

Question 130:

Sleeping sickness is caused by:

  • (1) Protozoan Trypanosoma
  • (2) SARS Bacteria
  • (3) Staphylococcus Bacteria
  • (4) Protozoan Leishmania

Question 131:

The enzyme that breaks down protein during digestion :

  • (1) Trypsin
  • (2) Amylase
  • (3) Pepsin
  • (4) Chymotrypsin

Question 132:

A plant hormone that cause wilting of leaves is :

  • (1) Auxin
  • (2) Gibberellin
  • (3) Cytokinin
  • (4) Abscisic Acid

Question 133:

The process of purifying blood by an artificial kidney is known as:

  • (1) Dialysis
  • (2) Haemodialysis
  • (3) Filtration
  • (4) None of these

Question 134:

What is the energy currency of the cell?

  • (1) Fat
  • (2) Protein
  • (3) ADP
  • (4) ATP

Question 135:

The change of radiant energy into chemical energy is known as :

  • (1) Photosynthesis
  • (2) Chemical Synthesis
  • (3) Respiration
  • (4) Transpiration

English

Question 136:

Choose an antonym (opposite in meaning) for 'short':

  • (1) small
  • (2) less
  • (3) long
  • (4) tall
Correct Answer: (3) long
View Solution

Step 1: Understand the meaning of 'antonym'.

An antonym is a word that means the opposite of another word.

Step 2: Understand the meaning of 'short'.

'Short' can refer to a small length, distance, or duration. It can also refer to a small height (e.g., a short person).

Step 3: Evaluate each option as a potential antonym for 'short'.

(1) small: While 'small' can sometimes be related to 'short' (e.g., a small object can be short in dimension), it is a synonym in certain contexts, not a direct antonym for all meanings of short. 'Small' refers to overall size, while 'short' often refers to a specific dimension like length or height.
(2) less: 'Less' is a comparative adjective or adverb meaning a smaller amount or degree. It is not an antonym for 'short' in terms of length or height.
(3) long: 'Long' is a direct antonym for 'short' when referring to length or duration (e.g., a long rope vs. a short rope, a long journey vs. a short journey).
(4) tall: 'Tall' is a direct antonym for 'short' when referring specifically to height (e.g., a tall person vs. a short person). However, 'long' is a more general antonym covering both length and duration, and is often the primary antonym for 'short' in many contexts.


Step 4: Select the best antonym.

Considering the common usage of 'short' in terms of length and duration, 'long' is the most comprehensive and direct antonym. While 'tall' is an antonym for 'short' when referring to height, 'long' is a more universally applicable opposite.

(3) long Quick Tip: When choosing an antonym, consider the primary or most common meaning of the word. 'Long' is the most direct and broadly applicable opposite for 'short'.


Question 137:

Choose the correct form of verb :

Her hair ............... crisp and black.

  • (1) are
  • (2) were
  • (3) is
  • (4) am

Question 138:

Choose the correct word to fill the blank :

.................. is good for health.

  • (1) Walking
  • (2) Writing
  • (3) Waiting
  • (4) Reading

Question 139:

Choose the correct option:


Mohan _________\ this book yesterday.

  • (1) buy
  • (2) bought
  • (3) will buy
  • (4) buying

Question 140:

Find the one word that can substitute the following:

"The act of afforestation by planting many trees."

  • (1) Deforestation
  • (2) Afforestation
  • (3) Forest
  • (4) Defrost

Question 141:

Find the correct option for the following jumbled words :
indoor/and/there/are/outdoor/kind of/various/games

  • (1) There are various kind of indoor and outdoor games.
  • (2) There are indoor and outdoor kind of various games.
  • (3) Various kind of indoor and outdoor games are there.
  • (4) Indoor and outdoor kind of various games are there.

Question 142:

Fill the correct choice :
The .......... of flowers.

  • (1) group
  • (2) collection
  • (3) bunch
  • (4) heap

Question 143:

Find the correct verb for the word 'advice' :

  • (1) advise
  • (2) advisor
  • (3) advisable
  • (4) advisory

Question 144:

Find the correct option for the underline idiom :

He got fame by leaps and bounds.

  • (1) slowly
  • (2) silently
  • (3) surprisingly
  • (4) rapidly

Question 145:

Fill in the blank with the correct preposition:


He died ______\ hunger.

  • (1) of
  • (2) from
  • (3) by
  • (4) with

Question 146:

Which is the correct passive form of the following sentence:

Pradeep writes a letter.

  • (1) A letter was written by Pradeep.
  • (2) A letter has been written by Pradeep.
  • (3) A letter is written by Pradeep.
  • (4) A letter will be written by Pradeep.

Question 147:

Fill in the blank with a suitable article :

His wife is .......... actress.

  • (1) an
  • (2) a
  • (3) the
  • (4) am

Question 148:

Choose correct form of verb :

Ansha .......... to be a space scientist.

  • (1) want
  • (2) wants
  • (3) wanting
  • (4) become

Question 149:

Fill in the blank with a suitable modal :

Soldiers ................ obey the orders of their offices.

  • (1) need
  • (2) might
  • (3) could
  • (4) must

Question 150:

Choose the word similar in meaning to the word 'kind' :

  • (1) rude
  • (2) merciful
  • (3) eager
  • (4) cruel

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