TS POLYCET 2024 Question Paper: Download Set A Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

TS POLYCET 2024 Question Paper Set A is available for download here. State Board of Technical Education and Training (SBTET), Telangana conducted TS POLYCET 2024 on May 24 in a single shift. TS POLYCET Question Paper consists of 120 MCQs from Mathematics (60 questions), Physics (30 questions), and Chemistry (30 questions). A total duration of 120 minutes will be given to the candidates to complete the TS POLYCET 2024 Question Paper.

TS POLYCET 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF Set A

TS POLYCET 2024​ Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solution
TS POLYCET 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Question 1:

The expression \((6 + 5\sqrt{3}) - (4 - 3\sqrt{3})\) is:

  • (1) Rational number
  • (2) Irrational number
  • (3) Natural number
  • (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (2) Irrational number View Solution

Question 2:

Which of the following rational number has terminating decimal?

  • (1) \(\frac{7}{250}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{16}{225}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{5}{18}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{2}{21}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{7}{250}\)
View Solution

Question 3:

H.C.F. of 2023, 2024, 2025 is:

  • (1) 2024
  • (2) 2023
  • (3) 0
  • (4) 1
Correct Answer: (4) 1
View Solution

Question 4:

The value of \(\log_6 2 + \log_6 3\) is:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 2
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (2) 1
View Solution

Question 5:

Exponential form of \(\log_b a = c\) is:

  • (1) \(b^a = c\)
  • (2) \(a^c = b\)
  • (3) \(a^b = c\)
  • (4) \(b^c = a\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(b^c = a\)
View Solution

Question 6:

The product of prime factors of 2024 is:

  • (1) \(11 \times 23 \times 32\)
  • (2) \(23 \times 11 \times 23^3\)
  • (3) \(7 \times 23 \times 23^2\)
  • (4) \(23 \times 11^2 \times 22^2\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(7 \times 23 \times 23^2\)
View Solution

Question 7:

Which of the following two sets are equal sets?

  • (1) \(A = \{5, 6\}, B = \{5\}\)
  • (2) \(A = \{5, 6\}, B = \{5, 6, 7\}\)
  • (3) \(A = \{5, 6, 7\}, B = \{7, 5, 6\}\)
  • (4) \(A = \{5, 6, 8\}, B = \{5, 6, 7\}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(A = \{5, 6, 7\}, B = \{7, 5, 6\}\)
View Solution

Question 8:

\(\{0\}\) is a set which has ........ elements.

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (2) 1
View Solution

Question 9:

If \(P(x) = 11x^8 - 5x^6 + 4x^4 - 7x^2 + 6\), then the degree of \(P(x)\) is

  • (1) 8
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 4
  • (4) 2
Correct Answer: (1) 8
View Solution

Question 10:

If -1, -2 are two zeros of a polynomial \(2x^3 + ax^2 + bx - 2\), then the values of \(a\) and \(b\) are

  • (1) 2, -1
  • (2) -5, -1
  • (3) 5, 1
  • (4) -2, -1
Correct Answer: (4) -2, -1
View Solution

Question 11:

If \(\alpha, \beta\) are the zeros of the polynomial \(P(x) = 3x^2 - x - 4\), then \(\alpha \times \beta =\)

  • (1) \(-\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (3) \(-\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(-\frac{1}{3}\)
View Solution

Question 12:

Which of the following equation represents the situation where Kiran bought 5 oranges, 7 apples, and Harish bought 2 oranges, 12 apples for the same amount of total money?

  • (1) \(5x + 12y = 2x + 7y\)
  • (2) \(5x + 7y = 2x + 12y\)
  • (3) \(5x - 7y = 2x - 12y\)
  • (4) \(5x + 2y = 7x + 12y\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(5x + 7y = 2x + 12y\)
View Solution

Question 13:

If \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{x}} = 2\) and \(\frac{4}{\sqrt{y}} = -1\), then

  • (1) \(x = 4\), \(y = 3\)
  • (2) \(x = 2\), \(y = 9\)
  • (3) \(x = 4\), \(y = 9\)
  • (4) \(x = 2\), \(y = 3\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(x = 4\), \(y = 9\)
View Solution

Question 14:

The pair of equations \(x + y = 5\) and \(2x + 2y = k\) has infinitely many solutions if \(k =\)

  • (1) 4
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 10
Correct Answer: (4) 10
View Solution

Question 15:

If \(\frac{a_1}{a_2} \neq \frac{b_1}{b_2}\), where \(a_1x + b_1y + c_1 = 0\) and \(a_2x + b_2y + c_2 = 0\) are two linear equations, then the equations

  • (1) have a unique solution
  • (2) have infinitely many solutions
  • (3) have finite solutions
  • (4) have no solution
Correct Answer: (1) have a unique solution
View Solution

Question 16:

The value of \(p\), for which the pair of equations \(3x + 4y + 2 = 0\) and \(9x + py + 8 = 0\) represents parallel lines, is:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 6
  • (4) 12
Correct Answer: (2) 4
View Solution

Question 17:

The roots of the quadratic equation \(x^2 - 4x + 4 = 0\) are:

  • (1) 4, 1
  • (2) 2, 2
  • (3) -2, -2
  • (4) 4, 2
Correct Answer: (2) 2, 2
View Solution

Question 18:

The sum of the roots of the quadratic equation \(3x^2 - 5x + 2 = 0\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{5}{3}\)
  • (2) \(-\frac{5}{3}\)
  • (3) \(-\frac{3}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
Correct Answer: (2) \(-\frac{5}{3}\)
View Solution

Question 19:

Sum of the areas of two squares is 625 m\(^2\). If the difference of their perimeters is 20 m, find the sides of the two squares.

  • (1) 20 m, 5 m
  • (2) 15 m, 10 m
  • (3) 20 m, 15 m
  • (4) 25 m, 5 m
Correct Answer: (3) 20 m, 15 m
View Solution

Question 20:

The discriminant of the quadratic equation \(3x^2 - 2x + \frac{1}{3} = 0\) is:

  • (1) 32
  • (2) 16
  • (3) 0
  • (4) 1
Correct Answer: (2) 16
View Solution

Question 21:

Which term of the A.P.: \(20, 18, 16, \dots\) is \(-80\)?

  • (1) 50
  • (2) 51
  • (3) 52
  • (4) 53
Correct Answer: (3) 52
View Solution

Question 22:

How many two-digit numbers are divisible by 3?

  • (1) 25
  • (2) 28
  • (3) 30
  • (4) 36
Correct Answer: (3) 30
View Solution

Question 23:

In a G.P. the 3rd term is 24 and 6th is 192, then the 10th term is:

  • (1) 2072
  • (2) 3072
  • (3) 1072
  • (4) 1672
Correct Answer: (2) 3072
View Solution

Question 24:

The common ratio of G.P.: \(25, -5, 1, -\frac{1}{5}, \dots\) is:

  • (1) \(-\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{5}\)
  • (3) \(2 \, \frac{5}{5}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(-\frac{1}{5}\)
View Solution

Question 25:

The distance between the points \((x_1, y_1)\) and \((x_2, y_2)\) is:

  • (1) \(\sqrt{(x_2 - x_1)^2 + (y_2 - y_1)^2}\)
  • (2) \(\sqrt{(x_2 + x_1)^2 + (y_2 + y_1)^2}\)
  • (3) \(\sqrt{(x_2 - x_1)^2 - (y_2 - y_1)^2}\)
  • (4) \(\sqrt{(x_2 + x_1)^2 - (y_2 + y_1)^2}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\sqrt{(x_2 - x_1)^2 + (y_2 - y_1)^2}\)
View Solution

Question 26:

The coordinates of the point which divides the line segment joining the points \((4, -3)\) and \((8, 5)\) in the ratio 3:1 internally is:

  • (1) (3, 7)
  • (2) (7, 3)
  • (3) (-7, -3)
  • (4) (-3, -7)
Correct Answer: (1) (3, 7)
View Solution

Question 27:

The centroid of the triangle with vertices \((1, -1)\), \((0, 6)\), and \((-3, 0)\) is:

  • (1) \(\left(\frac{2}{3}, \frac{5}{3}\right)\)
  • (2) \(\left(\frac{-2}{3}, \frac{-5}{3}\right)\)
  • (3) \(\left(\frac{-2}{3}, \frac{5}{3}\right)\)
  • (4) \(\left(\frac{2}{3}, \frac{-5}{3}\right)\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\left(\frac{2}{3}, \frac{5}{3}\right)\)
View Solution

Question 28:

Area of the triangle formed by the points \((-5, -1)\), \((3, -5)\) and \((5, 2)\) is:

  • (1) 32
  • (2) 22
  • (3) 42
  • (4) 52
Correct Answer: (2) 22
View Solution

Question 29:

In \(\triangle ABC\), if \(DE \parallel BC\), \(AE/CE = 3/5\) and \(AB = 5.6\) cm, then \(AD =\):
  (1) 2.8 cm

  • (2) 2.1 cm
  • (3) 3 cm
  • (4) 2.4 cm
Correct Answer: (1) 2.8 cm
View Solution

Question 30:

In \(\triangle ABC\), if \(DE \parallel BC\), \(AD = x\), \(DB = x - 2\), \(AE = x + 2\), and \(EC = x - 1\), then the value of \(x\) is:
   (1) 3

  • (2) 2
  • (3) 1
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (2) 2
View Solution

Question 31:

A girl of height 90 cm is walking away from the base of a lamp post at a speed of 120 cm/sec. If the lamp post is 360 cm above the ground, then the length of her shadow after 4 seconds is:

  • (1) 90 cm
  • (2) 120 cm
  • (3) 160 cm
  • (4) 180 cm
Correct Answer: (3) 160 cm
View Solution

Question 32:

If the ratio of corresponding sides of two similar triangles is 2:3, then the ratio of areas of these triangles is:

  • (1) 2 : 3
  • (2) \(\sqrt{2} : \sqrt{3}\)
  • (3) 4 : 9
  • (4) 16 : 81
Correct Answer: (3) 4 : 9
View Solution

Question 33:

If \(\triangle ABC\) is a right triangle right angled at \(C\) and let \(BC = a\), \(CA = b\), \(AB = c\) and let \(p\) be the length of perpendicular from \(C\) on \(AB\), then:

  • (1) \(cp = ab\)
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{p^2} = \frac{1}{a^2} + \frac{1}{b^2}\)
  • (3) \(a^2 + b^2 = p^2\)
  • (4) None
Correct Answer: (1) \(cp = ab\)
View Solution

Question 34:

If the areas of two similar triangles are 81 cm\(^2\) and 49 cm\(^2\) respectively. If the altitude of the smaller triangle is 3.5 cm, then the corresponding altitude of the bigger triangle is:

  • (1) 9.5 cm
  • (2) 9 cm
  • (3) 7 cm
  • (4) 4.5 cm
Correct Answer: (1) 9.5 cm
View Solution

Question 35:

A tangent to a circle touches it in _____ point(s).

  • (1) one
  • (2) two
  • (3) three
  • (4) infinite
Correct Answer: (1) one
View Solution

Question 36:

There are exactly _____ tangents to a circle through a point outside the circle.

  • (1) two
  • (2) three
  • (3) infinite
  • (4) None
Correct Answer: (1) two
View Solution

Question 37:

The length of the tangent from a point 15 cm away from the centre of a circle of radius 9 cm is:

  • (1) 15 cm
  • (2) 13 cm
  • (3) 11 cm
  • (4) 12 cm
Correct Answer: (3) 11 cm
View Solution

Question 38:

If \(AP\) and \(AQ\) are the two tangents to a circle with center \(O\), such that \(\angle POQ = 110^\circ\), then \(\angle PAQ =\):
  (1) 60°

  • (2) 70°
  • (3) 80°
  • (4) 90°
Correct Answer: (2) 70°
View Solution

Question 39:

If two concentric circles of radii 5 cm and 3 cm are drawn, then the length of the chord of the larger circle which touches the smaller circle is:

  • (1) 4 cm
  • (2) 6 cm
  • (3) 8 cm
  • (4) 10 cm
Correct Answer: (2) 6 cm
View Solution

Question 40:

The area of a sector, whose radius is 7 cm with the angle 72° is:

  • (1) 38 cm\(^2\)
  • (2) 30.8 cm\(^2\)
  • (3) 28.8 cm\(^2\)
  • (4) 57 cm\(^2\)
Correct Answer: (3) 28.8 cm\(^2\)
View Solution

Question 41:

If a right circular cylinder has base radius 14 cm and height 21 cm, then its curved surface area is:

  • (1) 924 cm\(^2\)
  • (2) 2772 cm\(^2\)
  • (3) 3080 cm\(^2\)
  • (4) 1848 cm\(^2\)
Correct Answer: (4) 1848 cm\(^2\)
View Solution

Question 42:

The volume of a right circular cone with radius 6 cm and height 7 cm is:

(use \(\pi = \frac{22}{7}\))

  • (1) 264 cm\(^3\)
  • (2) 792 cm\(^3\)
  • (3) 301 cm\(^3\)
  • (4) 616 cm\(^3\)
Correct Answer: (1) 264 cm\(^3\)
View Solution

Question 43:

If a cylinder and a cone have bases of equal radii and are of equal heights, then their volumes are in the ratio of:

  • (1) 1 : 2
  • (2) 2 : 3
  • (3) 3 : 1
  • (4) 1 : 4
Correct Answer: (3) 3 : 1
View Solution

Question 44:

If two cubes each of volume 64 cm\(^3\) are joined end to end together, then the surface area of the resulting cuboid is:

  • (1) 128 cm\(^2\)
  • (2) 160 cm\(^2\)
  • (3) 192 cm\(^2\)
  • (4) 384 cm\(^2\)
Correct Answer: (3) 192 cm\(^2\)
View Solution

Question 45:

The value of \(\sin^2 15^\circ + \cos^2 15^\circ\) is:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Correct Answer: (2) 1
View Solution

Question 46:

A chord of a circle of radius 4 cm is making an angle 60° at the centre, then the length of the chord is:

  • (1) 1 cm
  • (2) 2 cm
  • (3) 3 cm
  • (4) 4 cm
Correct Answer: (2) 2 cm
View Solution

Question 47:

If \(\csc \theta + \cot \theta = k\), then the value of \(\csc \theta\) is:

  • (1) \(\frac{k^2 + 1}{2k}\)
  • (2) 0
  • (3) \(\frac{k^2 - 1}{k^2 + 1}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{k}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{k^2 + 1}{2k}\)
View Solution

Question 48:

If \(A\), \(B\), and \(C\) are interior angles of triangle \(ABC\), then the value of \(\cos \left( \frac{A + B}{2} \right)\) is:

  • (1) \(\cos \left( \frac{A - B}{2} \right)\)
  • (2) \(\sin \left( \frac{A + B}{2} \right)\)
  • (3) \(\sin \left( \frac{C}{2} \right)\)
  • (4) \(\cos \left( \frac{B}{2} \right)\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\sin \left( \frac{C}{2} \right)\)
View Solution

Question 49:

The value of \(\cos 54^\circ \cos 36^\circ - \sin 54^\circ \sin 36^\circ\) is:

  • (1) 0
  • (2) 1
  • (3) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
Correct Answer: (1) 0
View Solution

Question 50:

A boy observed the top of an electric pole at an angle of elevation of \(60^\circ\) when the observation point is 6 meters away from the foot of the pole, then the height of the pole is:

  • (1) 6 m
  • (2) \(6\sqrt{2}\) m
  • (3) \(6\sqrt{3}\) m
  • (4) \(6/\sqrt{3}\) m
Correct Answer: (2) \(6\sqrt{2}\) m
View Solution

Question 51:

From a helicopter, a person observes an object on the ground at an angle of depression of \(30^\circ\). If the helicopter is flying at a height of 500 m from the ground, then the distance between the person and the object is:

  • (1) 500 m
  • (2) 1000 m
  • (3) \(500\sqrt{2}\) m
  • (4) \(500/\sqrt{3}\) m
Correct Answer: (3) \(500\sqrt{2}\) m
View Solution

Question 52:

Two boys on either side of a temple of 45 meters height observe its top at the angles of elevation 30° and 60° respectively. Find the distance between the two boys.

  • (1) \(60\sqrt{3}\) m
  • (2) \(40\sqrt{3}\) m
  • (3) \(60/\sqrt{3}\) m
  • (4) \(40/\sqrt{3}\) m
Correct Answer: (2) \(40\sqrt{3}\) m
View Solution

Question 53:

Two dice are thrown at the same time. What is the probability that the sum of the two numbers appearing on the top of the dice is 13?

  • (1) 1
  • (2) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (4) 0
Correct Answer: (4) 0
View Solution

Question 54:

One card is selected from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards, the probability of getting the queen of diamonds is:

  • (1) \(\frac{1}{52}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{3}{26}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{26}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{13}\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(\frac{1}{52}\)
View Solution

Question 55:

A Kiddy bank contains hundred 50 paise coins, fifty ₹1 coins, twenty ₹2 coins, and ten ₹5 coins. If one of the coins will fall out when the bank is turned upside down, what is the probability that the coin is a ₹5 coin?

  • (1) \(\frac{5}{9}\)
  • (2) \(\frac{5}{18}\)
  • (3) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
  • (4) \(\frac{1}{18}\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
View Solution

Question 56:

Rainfall of a town in a week is 4 cm, 5 cm, 12 cm, 3 cm, 6 cm, 8 cm, and 4 cm, then the average rainfall per day is:

  • (1) 4 cm
  • (2) 5 cm
  • (3) 6 cm
  • (4) 7 cm
Correct Answer: (2) 5 cm
View Solution

Question 57:

Which of the following is not a formula for arithmetic mean?

  • (1) \(\frac{\sum f_i x_i}{\sum f_i}\)
  • (2) \(a + \frac{\sum f_i d_i}{\sum f_i}\)
  • (3) \(a + \left[ \frac{\sum f_i \mu_i}{\sum f_i} \right] \times h\)
  • (4) \(l + \frac{f_1 - f_0}{2f_1 - f_0 - f_2} \times h\)
Correct Answer: (4) \(l + \frac{f_1 - f_0}{2f_1 - f_0 - f_2} \times h\)
View Solution

Question 58:

Mode of the data 9, 10, 19, 7, 11, 5, 6, 7, 8, 14, 10, 7, 6 is

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 10
  • (4) 19
Correct Answer: (2) 7
View Solution

Question 59:

In a grouped frequency distribution, the formula to find median is

  • (1) \(1 + \frac{n}{2} - cf \div f \times h\)
  • (2) \(1 - \frac{n}{2} + cf \div f \times h\)
  • (3) \(1 + \frac{n}{2} - cf \div f \times h\)
  • (4) \(1 - \frac{n}{2} - cf \div f \times h\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(1 + \frac{n}{2} - cf \div f \times h\)
View Solution

Question 60:

The median of 75, 21, 56, 36, 81, 05, and 42 is

  • (1) 36
  • (2) 42
  • (3) 56
  • (4) 21
Correct Answer: (2) 42
View Solution

Question 61:

Convex mirror is used as

  • (1) Focussing mirror
  • (2) Shaving mirror
  • (3) Rear view mirror in automobiles
  • (4) Dentist mirror
Correct Answer: (3) Rear view mirror in automobiles
View Solution

Question 62:

Concave mirrors can produce

  • (1) Only virtual
  • (2) Only real
  • (3) Both real and virtual
  • (4) None
Correct Answer: (3) Both real and virtual
View Solution

Question 63:

The mirror which always gives diminished image is

  • (1) Plano convex
  • (2) Convex mirror
  • (3) Concave mirror
  • (4) Plane mirror
Correct Answer: (2) Convex mirror
View Solution

Question 64:

The focal length of a concave mirror is 20 cm. At what distance the object is placed to obtain the virtual image?

  • (1) Less than 20 cm
  • (2) At 20 cm
  • (3) More than 20 cm
  • (4) None
Correct Answer: (1) Less than 20 cm
View Solution

Question 65:

The midpoint of a thin lens is called

  • (1) Optic center
  • (2) Principal axis
  • (3) Focal point
  • (4) Centre of curvature
Correct Answer: (1) Optic center
View Solution

Question 66:

A light ray passing along the principal axis of a lens is

  • (1) Deviated
  • (2) Reflected
  • (3) Refracted
  • (4) Undeviated
Correct Answer: (4) Undeviated
View Solution

Question 67:

In which one among the following cases the convex lens does not give a real image?

  • (1) When the object is between focal point and optic centre
  • (2) When the object is beyond the centre of curvature
  • (3) When the object is between the centre of curvature and focal point
  • (4) None
Correct Answer: (1) When the object is between focal point and optic centre
View Solution

Question 68:

A convex lens kept in a medium with refractive index less than the refractive index of the lens behaves like

  • (1) Diverging lens
  • (2) Converging lens
  • (3) Plane mirror
  • (4) Concave mirror
Correct Answer: (1) Diverging lens
View Solution

Question 69:

The focal length of double concave lens having refractive index 1.5 kept in air with two spherical surfaces of radii \( R_1 = 20 \, cm \) and \( R_2 = 80 \, cm \) is

  • (1) 16 cm
  • (2) 24 cm
  • (3) 32 cm
  • (4) 48 cm
Correct Answer: (2) 24 cm
View Solution

Question 70:

The formula for refractive index of a prism is

  • (1) \( \frac{\sin \left( \frac{A}{2} \right)}{\sin \left( \frac{A+D}{2} \right)} \)
  • (2) \( n = \frac{\sin \left( \frac{D}{2} \right)}{\sin \left( \frac{A}{2} \right)} \)
  • (3) \( n = \frac{\sin \left( \frac{A+D}{2} \right)}{\sin \left( \frac{A}{2} \right)} \)
  • (4) \( n = \frac{\sin (A+D)}{\sin (A)} \)
Correct Answer: (3) \( n = \frac{\sin \left( \frac{A+D}{2} \right)}{\sin \left( \frac{A}{2} \right)} \)
View Solution

Question 71:

The least distance of distinct vision of a healthy person is

  • (1) 25 mm
  • (2) 25 cm
  • (3) 25 m
  • (4) 25 km
Correct Answer: (2) 25 cm
View Solution

Question 72:

The focal length of a lens having power 4D is

  • (1) 5 cm
  • (2) 15 cm
  • (3) 10 cm
  • (4) 25 cm
Correct Answer: (2) 15 cm
View Solution

Question 73:

The defect in eye vision that people cannot see objects at long distance is

  • (1) Hypermetropia
  • (2) Presbyopia
  • (3) Myopia
  • (4) None
Correct Answer: (3) Myopia
View Solution

Question 74:

The process of an eye lens to adjust its focal length to form a sharp image on retina is called

  • (1) Distinct vision
  • (2) Accommodation
  • (3) Cornea
  • (4) Pupil
Correct Answer: (2) Accommodation
View Solution

Question 75:

The appearance of red colour of the Sun during Sunrise and Sunset is due to

  • (1) Dispersion of light
  • (2) Scattering of light
  • (3) Total internal reflection
  • (4) None
Correct Answer: (2) Scattering of light
View Solution

Question 76:

The S.I. unit of electrical resistance is

  • (1) Ampere
  • (2) Volt
  • (3) Farad
  • (4) Ohm
Correct Answer: (4) Ohm
View Solution

Question 77:

Formula for specific resistance is

  • (1) \( \rho = \frac{RA}{L} \)
  • (2) \( \rho = \frac{LA}{R} \)
  • (3) \( \rho = \frac{IR}{L} \)
  • (4) \( \rho = \frac{RL}{A} \)
Correct Answer: (1) \( \rho = \frac{RA}{L} \)
View Solution

Question 78:

The current in a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference between its ends at constant temperature. This is known as

  • (1) Faraday's law
  • (2) Kirchhoff's law
  • (3) Ohm's law
  • (4) Newton's law
Correct Answer: (3) Ohm's law
View Solution

Question 79:

Kirchhoff's junction law is based on conservation of

  • (1) Energy
  • (2) Momentum
  • (3) Charge
  • (4) Angular momentum
Correct Answer: (3) Charge
View Solution

Question 80:

Calculate the resultant resistance in the following circuit.



  • (1) 3 \(\Omega\)
  • (2) 10 \(\Omega\)
  • (3) 13 \(\Omega\)
  • (4) 7 \(\Omega\)
Correct Answer: (2) 10 \(\Omega\)
View Solution

Question 81:

The instrument to measure potential difference is

  • (1) Ammeter
  • (2) Voltmeter
  • (3) Galvanometer
  • (4) Wattmeter
Correct Answer: (2) Voltmeter
View Solution

Question 82:

The tangent drawn to the magnetic field line at a point gives

  • (1) magnetic flux
  • (2) current
  • (3) direction of the magnetic field
  • (4) charge
Correct Answer: (3) direction of the magnetic field
View Solution

Question 83:

The magnetic flux passing through unit area taken perpendicular to the uniform magnetic field is called

  • (1) Magnetic flux density
  • (2) Magnetic flux
  • (3) Magnetic field
  • (4) Induced electromotive force
Correct Answer: (1) Magnetic flux density
View Solution

Question 84:

The direction of the magnetic field lines outside the current carrying solenoid is from

  • (1) South to North
  • (2) North to South
  • (3) East to West
  • (4) West to East
Correct Answer: (2) North to South
View Solution

Question 85:

In electric motors

  • (1) Electrical energy is converted into mechanical energy
  • (2) Mechanical energy is converted into electrical energy
  • (3) Electrical energy is converted into light energy
  • (4) Mechanical energy is converted into light energy
Correct Answer: (1) Electrical energy is converted into mechanical energy
View Solution

Question 86:

Which law states "the induced current set up in the coil is in such a direction that it opposes the changes in the flux"?

  • (1) Kirchhoff's law
  • (2) Lenz's law
  • (3) Coulomb's law
  • (4) Ohm's law
Correct Answer: (2) Lenz's law
View Solution

Question 87:

Induction stove works on the principle of

  • (1) Magnetic induction
  • (2) Electrostatic induction
  • (3) Electromagnetic induction
  • (4) Electric shock
Correct Answer: (3) Electromagnetic induction
View Solution

Question 88:

A conductor of length 'l' is moving perpendicular to magnetic field 'B' with a speed 'v'. The motional emf is given by -

  • (1) Blv
  • (2) Bv2l
  • (3) \frac{B}{v}
  • (4) \frac{Bl}{v}
Correct Answer: (1) Blv
View Solution

Question 89:

The magnetic force exerted on a 3 m length conductor carrying 2A current when placed in a uniform magnetic field 0.4 T at an angle 30° is

  • (1) 12 N
  • (2) 1.2 N
  • (3) 2.4 N
  • (4) 24 N
Correct Answer: (3) 2.4 N
View Solution

Question 90:

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  • (1) AC changes its magnitude but not direction
  • (2) DC changes its magnitude and direction
  • (3) DC changes its direction only
  • (4) AC changes both its magnitude and direction
Correct Answer: (4) AC changes both its magnitude and direction
View Solution

Question 91:

What is the symbol used in a chemical equation to represent the gas evolved in a reaction?

  • (1) \(\rightarrow\)
  • (2) \(\leftarrow\)
  • (3) \(\uparrow\)
  • (4) \(\downarrow\)
Correct Answer: (3) \(\uparrow\)
View Solution

Question 92:

Volume occupied by 10 g of hydrogen at STP in litres is

  • (1) 224
  • (2) 112
  • (3) 56
  • (4) 22.4
Correct Answer: (4) 22.4
View Solution

Question 93:

Quantum mechanical model of the atom was developed by

  • (1) Neils Bohr
  • (2) Sommerfeld
  • (3) Erwin Schrodinger
  • (4) Rutherford
Correct Answer: (3) Erwin Schrodinger
View Solution

Question 94:

Maximum no. of electrons in a subshell is equal to

  • (1) \(2n^2\)
  • (2) \(n^2\)
  • (3) \(2(2l + 1)\)
  • (4) \(2l + 1\)
Correct Answer: (1) \(2n^2\)
View Solution

Question 95:

Number of unpaired electrons present in carbon atom is

  • (1) 6
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 2
Correct Answer: (4) 2
View Solution

Question 96:

Law of octaves was proposed by

  • (1) Dobereiner
  • (2) Moseley
  • (3) Mendeleev
  • (4) Newlands
Correct Answer: (4) Newlands
View Solution

Question 97:

Number of elements present in the sixth period of the modern periodic table

  • (1) 32
  • (2) 8
  • (3) 18
  • (4) 19
Correct Answer: (1) 32
View Solution

Question 98:

Which one of the following atoms is smaller in size?

  • (1) F
  • (2) O
  • (3) N
  • (4) C
Correct Answer: (1) F
View Solution

Question 99:

Ionization energy along a period from left to right generally

  • (1) increases
  • (2) decreases
  • (3) remains same
  • (4) none of the above
Correct Answer: (1) increases
View Solution

Question 100:

Element with atomic number 17 belongs to

  • (1) VI A group, 2nd period
  • (2) VII A group, 2nd period
  • (3) VI A group, 3rd period
  • (4) VII A group, 3rd period
Correct Answer: (4) VII A group, 3rd period
View Solution

Question 101:

Oxygen gains ____ electrons during the chemical changes.

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 3
  • (4) 4
Correct Answer: (2) 2
View Solution

Question 102:

Number of bond pairs and lone pairs in the valence shell of nitrogen in NH\(_3\)

  • (1) 2, 2
  • (2) 1, 3
  • (3) 3, 1
  • (4) 4, 0
Correct Answer: (3) 3, 1
View Solution

Question 103:

Bond angle in BeCl\(_2\) molecule is

  • (1) 120\(^\circ\)
  • (2) 180\(^\circ\)
  • (3) 109\(^\circ\) 28'
  • (4) 107\(^\circ\) 48'
Correct Answer: (1) 120\(^\circ\)
View Solution

Question 104:

Ionic bond is formed due to transfer of electrons from

  • (1) metal atom to non-metal atom
  • (2) non-metal atom to metal atom
  • (3) non-metal atom to non-metal atom
  • (4) metal atom to metal atom
Correct Answer: (2) non-metal atom to metal atom
View Solution

Question 105:

Polar covalent bond present in

  • (1) NaCl
  • (2) N\(_2\)
  • (3) Na\(_2\)O
  • (4) HCl
Correct Answer: (1) NaCl
View Solution

Question 106:

Double bond present in

  • (1) H\(_2\)
  • (2) HCl
  • (3) N\(_2\)
  • (4) O\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (4) O\(_2\)
View Solution

Question 107:

The colour of methyl orange indicator in basic solution is

  • (1) Yellow
  • (2) Green
  • (3) Orange
  • (4) Red
Correct Answer: (1) Yellow
View Solution

Question 108:

The reaction of an acid with a base to give a salt and water is known as

  • (1) Oxidation
  • (2) Reduction
  • (3) Neutralization
  • (4) Combustion
Correct Answer: (3) Neutralization
View Solution

Question 109:

Which one of the following is used for disinfecting drinking water?

  • (1) Baking soda
  • (2) Bleaching powder
  • (3) Washing soda
  • (4) Plaster of paris
Correct Answer: (2) Bleaching powder
View Solution

Question 110:

The process of dissolving acid or base in water is

  • (1) Exothermic process
  • (2) Endothermic process
  • (3) Neutralisation
  • (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (1) Exothermic process
View Solution

Question 111:

The metal that occurs in the free form (native) is

  • (1) Pb
  • (2) Au
  • (3) Fe
  • (4) Hg
Correct Answer: (2) Au
View Solution

Question 112:

Galena is an ore of

  • (1) Al
  • (2) Pb
  • (3) Hg
  • (4) Zn
Correct Answer: (2) Pb
View Solution

Question 113:

In smelting the ore it is

  • (1) Oxidized
  • (2) Neutralized
  • (3) Reduced
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (3) Reduced
View Solution

Question 114:

The hydrocarbons containing only single bonds between carbon atoms are called

  • (1) Alkanes
  • (2) Alkenes
  • (3) Alkynes
  • (4) Benzene
Correct Answer: (1) Alkanes
View Solution

Question 115:

Which one of the following is a ketone?

  • (1) CH3–C–CH3
  • (2) CH3–O–CH3
  • (3) CH3–CH2OH
  • (4) CH3–CHO
Correct Answer: (1) CH3–C–CH3
View Solution

Question 116:

If the hydrogen atom of -COOH gets replaced by 'R' (alkyl group) ___ are obtained.

  • (1) Acids
  • (2) Esters
  • (3) Ketones
  • (4) Amines
Correct Answer: (2) Esters
View Solution

Question 117:

The number of sigma and \(\pi\)-bonds in ethyne molecule:

  • (1) 1 sigma, 1 \(\pi\)
  • (2) 2 sigma, 2 \(\pi\)
  • (3) 2 sigma, 1 \(\pi\)
  • (4) 3 sigma, 2 \(\pi\)
Correct Answer: (2) 2 sigma, 2 \(\pi\)
View Solution

Question 118:

The process of conversion of starches and sugars to C2H5OH is called

  • (1) Combustion
  • (2) Hydrolysis
  • (3) Fermentation
  • (4) Esterification
Correct Answer: (3) Fermentation
View Solution

Question 119:

Which of the following is an unsaturated compound?

  • (1) CH4
  • (2) CH3 - CH3
  • (3) CH3 - CH = CH2
  • (4) CH3 - CH2 - CH3
Correct Answer: (3) CH3 - CH = CH2
View Solution

Question 120:

The final compound formed when methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight is

  • (1) CH3Cl
  • (2) CH2Cl2
  • (3) CHCl3
  • (4) CCl4
Correct Answer: (1) CH3Cl
View Solution

Question 121:

Which test is performed to identify the presence of starch in leaves?

  • (1) Picric acid test
  • (2) Iodine test
  • (3) Nessler's test
  • (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (2) Iodine test
View Solution

Question 122:

In the mouth, the crushed food mixed with saliva which forms a slippery lump is called?

  • (1) Bolus
  • (2) Chyme
  • (3) Peptones
  • (4) None of the above
Correct Answer: (1) Bolus
View Solution

Question 123:

Which of the following statement is true?

  • (1) Chlorophyll 'a' is bluish green in colour and Chlorophyll 'b' is yellowish green in colour
  • (2) Chlorophyll 'a' is black in colour and Chlorophyll 'b' is grey in colour
  • (3) Chlorophyll 'a' is yellowish green in colour and Chlorophyll 'b' is bluish green in colour
  • (4) Both Chlorophyll 'a' and Chlorophyll 'b' are white in colour
Correct Answer: (1) Chlorophyll 'a' is bluish green in colour and Chlorophyll 'b' is yellowish green in colour
View Solution

Question 124:

Choose the correct sequence of steps in Respiration.

  • (1) Breathing \(\to\) Gaseous exchange at lungs level \(\to\) Gas transport by blood \(\to\) Gaseous exchange at tissue level \(\to\) Cellular Respiration
  • (2) Breathing \(\to\) Gas transport by blood \(\to\) Gaseous exchange at lungs level \(\to\) Gaseous exchange at tissue level \(\to\) Cellular Respiration
  • (3) Gaseous exchange at lungs level \(\to\) Breathing \(\to\) Gas transport by blood \(\to\) Gaseous exchange at tissue level \(\to\) Cellular Respiration
  • (4) Cellular Respiration \(\to\) Gaseous exchange at lungs level \(\to\) Gas transport by blood \(\to\) Gaseous exchange at tissue level \(\to\) Breathing
Correct Answer: (3) Gaseous exchange at lungs level \(\to\) Breathing \(\to\) Gas transport by blood \(\to\) Gaseous exchange at tissue level \(\to\) Cellular Respiration
View Solution

Question 125:

Each ATP molecule gives how much energy?

  • (1) 8700 calories
  • (2) 10800 calories
  • (3) 7200 calories
  • (4) 10000 calories
Correct Answer: (3) 7200 calories
View Solution

Question 126:

C\(_6\)H\(_{12}\)O\(_6\) + 6O\(_2\) \(\to\) 6CO\(_2\) + 6H\(_2\)O + \text{Energy. This equation summarizes which process?

  • (1) Excretion
  • (2) Respiration
  • (3) Photosynthesis
  • (4) Digestion
Correct Answer: (2) Respiration
View Solution

Question 127:

The yellowish straw colored fluid portion that forms after the blood clot is called

  • (1) Plasma
  • (2) Fibrin
  • (3) Serum
  • (4) Thrombin
Correct Answer: (3) Serum
View Solution

Question 128:

What is the name of the valve present on the right Auriculo-Ventricular septum between right atrium and right ventricle called?

  • (1) Tricuspid valve
  • (2) Bicuspid valve
  • (3) Mitral valve
  • (4) Pulmonary valve
Correct Answer: (1) Tricuspid valve
View Solution

Question 129:

Regarding blood pressure, what is the systolic pressure in a healthy young adult?

  • (1) 80 mm of Hg
  • (2) 100 mm of Hg
  • (3) 120 mm of Hg
  • (4) 20 mm of Hg
Correct Answer: (3) 120 mm of Hg
View Solution

Question 130:

Evaporation of water through leaves is called?

  • (1) Respiration
  • (2) Transpiration
  • (3) Transportation
  • (4) Circulation
Correct Answer: (2) Transpiration
View Solution

Question 131:

Deficiency of Vasopressin causes excessive dilute urination. This condition is called?

  • (1) Diabetes mellitus
  • (2) Diabetes insipidus
  • (3) Scurvy
  • (4) Beri beri
Correct Answer: (2) Diabetes insipidus
View Solution

Question 132:

The maximum urine storage capacity of urinary bladder is?

  • (1) 2000-3000 ml
  • (2) 50-100 ml
  • (3) 10000-20000 ml
  • (4) 700-800 ml
Correct Answer: (4) 700-800 ml
View Solution

Question 133:

Kidneys are the excretory organs in which animals?

  • (1) Amoeba
  • (2) Sponges
  • (3) Birds
  • (4) Earthworm
Correct Answer: (3) Birds
View Solution

Question 134:

Which of the following poisonous, nitrogenous byproducts are stored in different parts of the plants?

  • (1) Tannins
  • (2) Resins
  • (3) Alkaloids
  • (4) Latex
Correct Answer: (3) Alkaloids
View Solution

Question 135:

.............. is an endocrine gland, secretes the hormones insulin and glucagon.

  • (1) Thyroid
  • (2) Adrenal
  • (3) Ovary
  • (4) Pancreas
Correct Answer: (4) Pancreas
View Solution

Question 136:

................ causes ripening of fruits.

  • (1) Ethylene
  • (2) Auxins
  • (3) Cytokinins
  • (4) Gibberellins
Correct Answer: (1) Ethylene
View Solution

Question 137:

Roots grow downwards, plants respond positively for gravitational force. What is this called?

  • (1) Phototropism
  • (2) Geotropism
  • (3) Hydrotropism
Correct Answer: (2) Geotropism
View Solution

Question 138:

........... bacteria is responsible for the formation of curd from milk.

  • (1) Bacillus thuringiensis
  • (2) Lactobacillus
  • (3) Pseudomonas
Correct Answer: (2) Lactobacillus
View Solution

Question 139:

Examples of propagation by stem are:

  • (1) Stolons and runners
  • (2) Bulbs and corms
  • (3) Rhizome and tuber
Correct Answer: (4) All of the above
View Solution

Question 140:

Majority of flowering plants have an embryo sac consisting of:

  • (1) 7 cells and 8 nuclei
  • (2) 8 cells and 8 nuclei
  • (3) 7 cells and 7 nuclei
Correct Answer: (1) 7 cells and 8 nuclei
View Solution

Question 141:

The correct order of passage of spermatozoa is:

  • (1) Seminiferous tubules \(\to\) Vasa efferentia \(\to\) Epididymis \(\to\) Ejaculatory duct \(\to\) Urethra
  • (2) Seminiferous tubules \(\to\) Epididymis \(\to\) Vasa efferentia \(\to\) Ejaculatory duct \(\to\) Urethra
  • (3) Seminiferous tubules \(\to\) Ejaculatory duct \(\to\) Vasa efferentia \(\to\) Epididymis
Correct Answer: (1) Seminiferous tubules \(\to\) Vasa efferentia \(\to\) Epididymis \(\to\) Ejaculatory duct \(\to\) Urethra
View Solution

Question 142:

The walls of the food pipe secrete a slippery substance called:

  • (1) Amylase
  • (2) Lipase
  • (3) Mucus
Correct Answer: (3) Mucus
View Solution

Question 143:

From the stomach, the partially digested food (chyme) is released into:

  • (1) Duodenum
  • (2) Large intestine
  • (3) Small intestine
Correct Answer: (1) Duodenum
View Solution

Question 144:

The phenotypic ratio of F2 generation in a monohybrid cross is:

  • (1) 1:2:1
  • (2) 3:1
  • (3) 9:3:3:1
Correct Answer: (2) 3:1
View Solution

Question 145:

The number of allosomes in human cells are:

  • (1) 2
  • (2) 4
  • (3) 23
Correct Answer: (2) 4
View Solution

Question 146:

Change in the frequency of genes in small populations is called:

  • (1) Variation
  • (2) Mutation
  • (3) Genetic drift
Correct Answer: (3) Genetic drift
View Solution

Question 147:

Occurrence of vestigial organs abruptly in human beings is called:

  • (1) Atavism
  • (2) Dwarfism
  • (3) Regeneration
Correct Answer: (1) Atavism
View Solution

Question 148:

The process of entry of pollutants into a food chain is known as:

  • (1) Restoration
  • (2) Bioaccumulation
  • (3) Biomagnification
Correct Answer: (3) Biomagnification
View Solution

Question 149:

Seeds from .......... plants are used for the production of biofuel.

  • (1) Jatropha
  • (2) Chrysanthemum
  • (3) Hibiscus
Correct Answer: (1) Jatropha
View Solution

Question 150:

Coal, Petroleum (oil), and Natural Gas belong to which type of fuels?

  • (1) Chemical fuels
  • (2) Bio fuels
  • (3) Sunlight
Correct Answer: (4) Fossil fuels
View Solution

TS POLYCET Previous Year Question Papers

TS POLYCET Questions

  • 1.
    Which one of the following processes involves chemical change?

      • Melting of ice
      • Boiling of water
      • Respiration
      • Dissolving salt in water

    • 2.
      The roots of the quadratic equation \( x^2 - 16 = 0 \) are:

        • \( 4 \), \( -4 \)
        • \( 8 \), \( -8 \)
        • \( 16 \), \( -16 \)
        • \( 2 \), \( -2 \)

      • 3.
        In the given figure, if \( \angle AOB = 125^\circ \), then \( \angle COD = \):

          • \( 125^\circ \)
          • \( 55^\circ \)
          • \( 90^\circ \)
          • \( 45^\circ \)

        • 4.
          In \( \triangle ABC \), \( DE \parallel BC \), if \( AD = x + 1 \), \( DB = 3x - 1 \), \( AE = x \), and \( EC = 4x - 3 \), then the value of \( x \) is:

            • 1
            • 2
            • 3
            • 4

          • 5.
            If \( A \) is the set of odd numbers less than 6 and \( B \) is the set of prime factors of 30, then:

              • \( A \cup B = \{ 1, 3, 5, 2, 3, 5 \} \)
              • \( A \cap B = \{ 3, 5 \} \)
              • \( A \neq B \)
              • \( A \cup B = \{ 1, 3, 5, 2, 3 \} \)

            • 6.
              Atoms with low ionization potential and large atomic size:

                • Form cations easily
                • Form anions easily
                • Are unstable
                • Are non-reactive

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