ICAR AIEEA PG 2024 Social Science Question Paper (Available) - Download Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - Jun 30, 2025

The ICAR AIEEA PG 2024 Social Science Exam Question Paper with solution PDF is available here.

The ICAR AIEEA PG Question Paper follows the standard pattern with 120 multiple-choice questions, covering core subjects specific to the candidate’s chosen discipline. The paper generally includes about 60% subject-specific theory questions and 40% analytical or application-based MCQs to test in-depth understanding.

ICAR AIEEA PG 2024 Question Paper with Solution PDF

ICAR AIEEA PG 2024 Question Paper (Social Science) Download PDF Check Solution

Question 1:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Channels are physical bridges between the sender and receiver of the message.
Reason (R): Dimensions of channel are: a. The mode of encoding and decoding messages; b. Message-Vehicles, and c. Vehicle carriers.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Question 2:

Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MNREGS) is a flagship rural development programme of the Union Government with several features. Choose the correct combination:

(A) In phase-l, it was launched in two hundred most backward districts of the country in 2006.
(B) It is backed by the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA) passed by Government of India in 2005.
(C) It is fundamentally different from all other wage employment programmes, as it guarantees employment as a legal right.
(D) More than 6.2 crore assets have been geo-tagged till February 2023 and made available in the public domain.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (3) (A), (C) and (D) only.
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Question 3:

Which approach among the following four important approaches to define money, identifies the money with the credit extended by a wide variety of sources?

  • (1) Gurley and Shaw Approach
  • (2) Central Bank Approach
  • (3) Chicago Approach
  • (4) Conventional Approach

Question 4:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Extension agents should aim to use a combination of different teaching methods rather than relying on a single method.
Reason (R): Using a combination of methods ensures that information is presented in various ways, leading to faster learning.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Question 5:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                                                                        List-II
(A). Cooperative better farming society                             (I). Ownership as well as operation collective
(B). Cooperative collective farming society                      (II). Ownership collective but operation is individual
(C). Cooperative tenant farming society                           (III). Ownership and operation individual
(D). Cooperative joint farming society                             (IV). Ownership individual and operation is collective


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)

Question 6:

Arrange the following crop insurance schemes of India in their chronological order:

(A). Pilot Crop Insurance Scheme
(B). Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme
(C). National Agricultural Insurance Scheme
(D). Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (2) (D), (C), (B), (A).
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).

Question 7:

The "Model of Communication" as given by Rogers & Shoemaker (1971) has the following elements; arrange them in correct sequence:

(A). Source
(B). Message
(C). Channel
(D). Receiver
(E). Effect


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
  • (2) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E).
  • (3) (A), (C), (D), (E), (B)
  • (4) (A), (D), (E), (C), (B)

Question 8:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): In an effective learning situation, the learner occupies the most important central position.
Reason (R): The extension agent's efforts are directed towards creating learning situations that stimulate and guide learning activity.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Question 9:

Arrange the following banks as per their year of establishment in ascending order (that is, from beginning to latest):

(A). Canara Bank
(B). Central Bank of India
(C). Punjab National Bank
(D). Industrial Development Bank of India


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (C), (B), (D).
  • (2) (B), (D), (A), (C).
  • (3) (C), (A), (B), (D).
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).

Question 10:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Name of the Book)                                                                                               List-II (Name of the Author)
(A). An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of Wealth of Nations                            (I). Alfred Marshall
(B). Principles of Economics                                                                                       (II). Adam Smith
(C). The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money                                 (III). E.H. Chamberlin
(D). The Theory of Monopolistic Competition                                                           (IV). J.M. Keynes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 11:

Extension teaching is a planned and deliberate act on the part of the extension agent. The extension agent has to move step by step in a scientific and logical way. There are some basic steps which are given by Wilson and Gallup (1955) to be followed in extension teaching. Arrange these steps in logical order (first to last):

(A). Action, Satisfaction
(B). Interest, Desire
(C). Attention
(D). Conviction

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (2) (C), (B), (D), (A).
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (4) (C), (D), (B), (A).

Question 12:

Which type of leader commands influence based on land, wealth, or inherited status?

  • (1) Autocratic leader
  • (2) Democratic leader
  • (3) Traditional leader
  • (4) Emergent leader

Question 13:

Who said that "The lack of money is the root of all evils"?

  • (1) Robertson
  • (2) Keynes
  • (3) R.B Trescot
  • (4) George Bernard Shaw

Question 14:

The measurement of sampling error is usually called:

  • (1) Significance level
  • (2) Confidence level
  • (3) Precision of sampling plan
  • (4) Validation of data

Question 15:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Agricultural Credit Review Committee, 1989 was set up by RBI under the chairmanship of A.M Khusro.
Statement (II): Repo rate is the rate at which RBI borrows money from banks.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 16:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Audio-visual aids can only supplement the teacher but can never supplant him/her.
Reason (R): Since audio-visual aids play an important role in the process of Teaching-Learning, hence these may substitute and/or replace the Teacher in the Classroom.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct; but (R) is not related to (A).
  • (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
  • (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 17:

According to the All India Debt and Indebtedness Survey- 2019 Report, what percentage of cultivator households in rural areas were indebted as on 30th June, 2018?

  • (1) 40.3%
  • (2) 28.2%
  • (3) 20.6%
  • (4) 22.4%

Question 18:

Among the credit control instruments, which instrument is the rate at which the central bank makes available financial accommodation to commercial banks by discounting government or other first-class securities?

  • (1) Bank rate or Discount rate
  • (2) Cash Reserve Ratio
  • (3) Open Market Operations
  • (4) Cash Deposit Ratio

Question 19:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The adoption of practices may be relatively higher when more than five methods of extension techniques were used, as compared to a single extension technique.
Reason (R): Single extension technique usually proves to be useless, from adoption's point of view.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
  • (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
  • (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
  • (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Question 20:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Forms of Market Structure)                        List-II (Number of Firms and Nature of Product)
(A). Perfect Competition                                        (I). Few firms; products may be homogeneous and differentiated with close substitutes
(B). Monopolistic Competition                             (II). One firm; unique product without close substitutes
(C). Oligopoly                                                        (III). Large number of firms; products are homogeneous
(D). Monopoly                                                       (IV). Large number of firms; products are differentiated with close substitutes

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 21:

Which of the following are the elements involved in the Communication Process?

(A). Sender
(B). Message
(C). Feedback
(D). Budget

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (2) (A) and (C) only
  • (3) (C) and (D) only
  • (4) (A), (B), (C) and (D).

Question 22:

Which of the following elements regulates the opening and closing of stomata?

  • (1) N
  • (2) K
  • (3) S
  • (4) P

Question 23:

Which method would be most suitable for reaching a large population in a relatively short period?

  • (1) Individual Method
  • (2) Group Method
  • (3) Mass Method
  • (4) Hybrid Method

Question 24:

The coins are minted in mints owned by the Govt. of India:

(A). Mumbai
(B). Hyderabad
(C). Kolkata
(D). Noida

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) and (B) only.
  • (2) (B) and (C) only.
  • (3) (A), (C) and (D) only.
  • (4) (A), (B), (C) and (D).

Question 25:

Arrange the steps followed in farm planning and budgeting from beginning to end:

(A). Identification of risks
(B). Identification of enterprises to be included
(C). Assessment of resource endowments on the farm
(D). Statement of objective

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (D), (A), (B), (C).
  • (2) (D), (B), (A), (C).
  • (3) (D), (C), (B), (A).
  • (4) (D), (B), (C), (A).

Question 26:

Choice between "production for the poor" or "production for the rich" refers to:

  • (1) How much to produce?
  • (2) For whom to produce?
  • (3) What to produce?
  • (4) When to produce?

Question 27:

The process of sharing information and knowledge between extension workers and farmers is called:

  • (1) Education
  • (2) Communication
  • (3) Technology transfer
  • (4) Farming

Question 28:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Wage-Push Inflation and Profit-Push Inflation are two factors responsible for the Cost-Push Inflation.
Reason (R): Wage-push inflation takes place when higher wages are secured without a corresponding increase in labour productivity.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Question 29:

Almost all states except which of the following(s) enacted laws for consolidation of holdings?

(A). Punjab
(B). Kerala
(C). Tamilnadu
(D). Uttar Pradesh

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) and (B) only.
  • (2) (B) and (C) only.
  • (3) (A) and (D) only.
  • (4) (A), (B) and (C) only.

Question 30:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The total expenditure made by a consumer on a normal good decreases with the increase in its price.
Reason (R): The price elasticity of demand for the good is elastic (\(E_p > 1\)).

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Question 31:

What does Rural Sociology primarily focus on?

  • (1) Analyzing urban social dynamics
  • (2) Formulating principles of progress for urban societies
  • (3) Studying the social, economic, and cultural aspects of rural life
  • (4) Investigating the political institutions in urban areas

Question 32:

A common barrier to communication in rural areas can be:

  • (1) Clear and concise language
  • (2) Lack of access to technology
  • (3) Active participation of farmers
  • (4) Use of visual aids

Question 33:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): If resources are not fully and efficiently utilized, then the potential level of output will be less than the actual level of output.
Statement (II): The production possibility curve refers to the minimum possible level of output attainable with the available resources.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 34:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): According to Keynes, an individual's aggregate demand to hold money is composed of Transaction Demand, Precautionary Demand, and Speculative Demand.
Reason (R): The Speculative Demand for money is a direct and positive function of the level of money income.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 35:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                          List-II
(A). Star network                     (I). Least amount of satisfaction
(B). Wheel network                 (II). Greatest amount of satisfaction
(C). Chain network                 (III). Moderate satisfaction
(D). Circle network                 (IV). Collective decision-making

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 36:

According to Everett Rogers 2003, arrange the various stages for converting research into practice.

(A). Research evaluation
(B). Research into practice
(C). Research trial
(D). Research awareness

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (D), (A), (C), (B)
  • (2) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).

Question 37:

Three largest gram-producing states of India in 2021-22 were:

(A). Maharashtra
(B). Madhya Pradesh
(C). Rajasthan
(D). Gujarat

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (3) (A), (C) and (D) only.
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Question 38:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Red cotton bug can be controlled by applying insecticide in soil.
Statement (II): Red cotton bug lays eggs in/on soil.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 39:

Barriers to communication in rural areas can be:

(A). Lack of access to technology
(B). Use of complex scientific jargon
(C). Active participation of farmers
(D). Focus on visuals

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) and (B) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Question 40:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): The income generated through self-liquidating loans is sufficient to clear off the entire loan amount in the same accounting year.
Statement (II): Net income \& net operating income can be calculated from the balance sheet.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 41:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Most typical tropical crops are short-day plants while those of higher latitudes are generally long-day plants.
Statement (II): The duration of night or complete darkness is more important than the length of the day.


In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 42:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                                                      List-II
(A). Eppley Spectral Radiometer                       (I). Both short and long wave radiation
(B). Kipp Radiometer                                         (II). Photosynthetically Active Radiation (PAR)
(C). Pyradiometer                                              (III). Wavelength of light
(D). Spectrophotometer                                    (IV). Diffused radiation


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Question 43:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                                                        List-II
(A). Single Window System                                 (I). F.K.F. Nariman Committee
(B). Differential Rate of Interest Scheme           (II). M. Narasimham Committee
(C). Lead Bank Scheme                                      (III). B.K. Hazare Committee
(D). Regional Rural Banks                                  (IV). Mohan Kanda Committee

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 44:

Who is known as the Father of Indian Economic Reforms?

  • (1) Dr. Manmohan Singh
  • (2) Sh. P.V. Narasimha Rao
  • (3) Dr. Yashwant Sinha
  • (4) Mr. Arun Jaitley

Question 45:

Arrange the following projects in the correct order of their start year, from earliest to latest:

(A). Operational Research Project
(B). National Demonstration Project
(C). Lab to Land Programme
(D). Etawah Pilot Project

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (2) (D), (B), (A), (C).
  • (3) (D), (C), (A), (B).
  • (4) (A), (B), (D), (C).

Question 46:

Arrange the National Product or Income estimates in the sequence they are calculated:

(A). Disposable Personal Income (DPI)
(B). National Income (NI)
(C). Gross National Product (GNP)
(D). Personal Income (PI)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (2) (D), (C), (B), (A).
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).

Question 47:

An important feature of e-Chaupal is:

  • (1) Face-to-face Communication
  • (2) Crop-specific internet resources
  • (3) Field Trip
  • (4) Coffee Cafe

Question 48:

Put the following Committees/Commissions/Policies related to land reforms in chronological order.

(A). Central Land Reforms Committee
(B). Congress Agrarian Reform Committee (Kumarappa Committee)
(C). National Agricultural Policy
(D). National Commission on Agriculture

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (2) (D), (A), (B), (C).
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).

Question 49:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Monitoring in extension programmes involves routine collection of information.
Reason (R): Monitoring helps in tracking project implementation progress and measuring efficiency.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
  • (4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

Question 50:

Which one of the following statements defines the Say's Law of Market?

  • (1) Supply creates its own demand.
  • (2) Everything else being equal, producers offer to sell more of a product at a higher price than at a lower price.
  • (3) Everything else being equal, consumers buy more of a product as its price falls and less as its price rises.
  • (4) Aggregate supply in a market is always equal to aggregate demand.

Question 51:

Match List-l with List-II:

List-I                                                        List-II
(A). Self-liquidating loan                      (I). Loan extended based on confidence between borrower and lender
(B). Unsecured loan                             (II). The loan advanced against the produce kept under the control of the lending institution 
(C). Chattel loan                                   (III). The loan from which income generated helps the farmer to repay the entire loan amount in                                                                             the same season or accounting year
(D). Key loan                                        (IV). Specific type of loan advanced against movable properties

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

Question 52:

Match List-l with List-ll:

List-I                                      List-II
(A). Acetamiprid                  (I). Synthetic pyrethroid
(B). Cypermethrin               (II). Chlorinated hydrocarbon
(C). Chlorpyriphos              (III). Neonicotinoid
(D). Lindane                         (IV). Organophosphate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  • (2) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 53:

Match List-l with List-ll:

List-I                                List-II
(A). Krishi                       (I). 1914
(B). Krishi Sudhar         (II). 1918
(C). Sevagram               (III). 1946
(D). Krishi Jagat           (IV). 1953

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 54:

Total fish production in India in 2020-21 was

  • (1) 142.56 lakh tonnes
  • (2) 154.69 lakh tonnes
  • (3) 162.48 lakh tonnes
  • (4) 172.60 lakh tonnes

Question 55:

What principle emphasizes the importance of using local resources in extension work?

  • (1) Principle of evaluation
  • (2) Principle of satisfaction
  • (3) Principle of adaptability in teaching methods
  • (4) Principle of use of local resources

Question 56:

Match List-l with List-ll:

List-I                                       List-II 
(A). Form utility                     (I). Storage function
(B). Place utility                    (II). Processing function
(C). Time utility                    (III). Marketing function
(D). Possession utility        (IV). Transportation function

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 57:

'Communicator' is sharing together and is for:

  • (1) Commonness
    (2) Apathy
    (3) Differences
    (4) Popularity

Question 58:

Arrange the following historical events related to extension services in the United States of America in the order of their occurrence from earliest to latest:

(A) The Morrill Act that established Land Grant Universities
(B) The Hatch Act that established Agricultural Experiment Stations
(C) Dr. Seaman A. Knapp sets up a demonstration that became a key technique for extension work
(D) The Smith-Lever Act that established the national cooperative extension system

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
(3) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(4) (C), (B), (D), (A)


Question 59:

Which statements reflect the philosophy of extension education according to Ensminger (1962)?

(A) Extension is solely an informational transfer process
(B) Extension aims to transform individuals by changing their knowledge, attitude, and skill
(C) Extension focuses on self-help and cooperative effort
(D) Extension is a continuous process

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) (A), (B) and (D) only
(2) (A), (C) and (D) only
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(4) (B), (C) and (D) only


Question 60:

Which one of the following is a Stock Resource/factor of production?

(1) Labour
(2) Working Capital
(3) Entrepreneurship
(4) Land


Question 61:

The diffusion of innovations model categorizes individuals as:

(A). Innovators
(B). Early adopters
(C). Late majority
(D). Progressive

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Question 62:

Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other one labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The efficiency of agricultural marketing is considered to be low.
Reason (R): There are a large number of intermediaries involved in the marketing of agricultural commodities.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  • (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
  • (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
  • (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Question 63:

Examples of audio-visual aids in extension communication include:

(A). Slide Presentations
(B). Group Discussions
(C). Radio Programmes
(D). Pamphlets

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) and (B) only.
  • (2) (A) and (C) only.
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Question 64:

If the output Y1 decreases by 500 units and output Y2 increases by 500 units when some resources are shifted from the production of Y1 to the production of Y2, then the marginal opportunity cost is:

  • (1) 0.75
  • (2) 0.80
  • (3) 1.00
  • (4) 0.20

Question 65:

Match List-l with List-ll:

List-I                                                    List-II
(A). Multimedia effect                       (I). Place word near corresponding picture
(B). Contiguity effect                        (II). Eliminate extraneous words and pictures
(C). Personalization                         (III). Add pictures to words
(D). Coherence effect                      (IV). Use conversational style for words

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 66:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): The sum of consumer surplus and producer surplus is known as total economic surplus.
Statement (II): Any shift of the supply curve to the left reduces the consumer surplus.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 67:

Which of the following statements characterize the 'Normal Good'?

(A). The quantity demanded of a commodity increases as its price falls.
(B). The income effect of price change is positive.
(C). The substitution effect of price change is negative.
(D). The income and substitution effects work in the opposite direction.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Question 68:

What type of changes in behavior qualify as learning?

  • (1) Temporary changes due to illness
  • (2) Permanent changes due to drugs
  • (3) Deliberate changes due to instruction
  • (4) Relatively permanent changes brought about by experience

Question 69:

How does extension education differ from formal education?

  • (1) It is confined to the premises of the institution
  • (2) It involves a fixed curriculum and examinations
  • (3) Knowledge flows only from the teacher to the learners
  • (4) Teaching primarily occurs outside the four walls of the classroom

Question 70:

State whether the two fundamental conditions given below for Price Discrimination to become possible are correct or incorrect:

Condition (I): The unit of the products can't be transferred from one market to another.
Condition (II): The buyers in the dearer market can't transfer themselves into the cheaper market to buy the product.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Condition (I) and Condition (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Condition (I) and Condition (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Condition (I) is correct but Condition (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Condition (I) is incorrect but Condition (II) is correct.

Question 71:

Arrange the following institutions as per descending order of year of establishment, that is, from latest (present) to oldest (past):

(A). NCUI (National Cooperative Union of India)
(B). NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd.)
(C). NDDB (National Dairy Development Board)
(D). NCDC (National Cooperative Development Corporation)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (D), (C).
  • (2) (B), (D), (A), (C).
  • (3) (C), (B), (D), (A).
  • (4) (C), (D), (B), (A).

Question 72:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                        List-II
(A). Co-dominance                (I). Flower colour in sweet pea
(B). Pleiotropy                       (II). Flower colour in snapdragon
(C). Epistasis                        (III). Fur coat in rabbit
(D). Multiple allelism           (IV). Sickle cell anemia

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
  • (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

Question 73:

Match List-I with List-II (Concepts of Extension Programme Planning):

List-I                                                     List-II
(A). Plan of work                                (I). Statement of situation, objectives, problems, and solutions.
(B). Calendar of work                       (II). Process of preparing a blueprint of actions to attain stated objectives within a time frame.
(C). Extension programme              (III). Plan of work arranged chronologically.
(D). Planning                                    (IV). Outline of activities so arranged as to enable efficient execution of the entire programme.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
  • (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)

Question 74:

Berlo's Model of Communication has the following elements; arrange them in the correct sequence:

(A). Source
(B). Message
(C). Channel
(D). Receiver

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (2) (A), (C), (B), (D).
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (4) (C), (B), (D), (A).

Question 75:

At what inclination to the ground are soil thermometers installed in the observatory?

  • (1) 30 degrees
  • (2) 45 degrees
  • (3) 60 degrees
  • (4) 90 degrees

Question 76:

Match List-I with List-II (Extension/Rural Development Programme):

List-I                                                      List-II
(A). Indian Village Service                  (I). 1921
(B). Firka Development                      (II). 1945
(C). Nilokheri Experiment                 (III). 1946
(D). Marthandam Project                  (IV). 1948

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
  • (4) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)

Question 77:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                                         List-II
(A). mKisan SMS portal                         (I). ICAR-New Delhi
(B). mkrishi                                            (II). BSNL
(C). Digital Mandi                                  (III). Tata Consultancy Services
(D). Kisan Suvidha App                        (IV). Department of Agriculture and Cooperation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 78:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (A): The method which helps to compare the present worth of the future revenue with the present investments is known as compounding.
(B): A process by which the present costs are made to grow with time to make it comparable with the future returns is known as discounting.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (A) and Statement (B) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (A) and (B) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (A) is correct but Statement (B) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (A) is incorrect but Statement (B) is correct.

Question 79:

The element of communication that carries the message is called:

  • (1) Sender
  • (2) Receiver
  • (3) Channel
  • (4) Feedback

Question 80:

Whether the financial benefits transferred to farmers under the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) scheme are exempted from reduction commitments under WTO? If yes, name the domestic support exemption box (Amber, Blue, Green, Development).

  • (1) Yes, Green box
  • (2) No (Not exempted)
  • (3) Yes, Amber box
  • (4) Yes, Development box

Question 81:

Arrange these rural development programmes chronologically starting from the latest to the earliest:

(A) IADP (Intensive Agricultural District Programme)
(B) IRDP (Integrated Rural Development Programme)
(C) PMGSY (Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana)
(D) SFDA (Small Farmers Development Agency)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (C), (D), (B), (A).
  • (2) (C), (B), (D), (A).
  • (3) (C), (A), (D), (B).
  • (4) (C), (A), (B), (D).

Question 82:

Extension educational process involves five essential interrelated steps. Arrange these steps in a logical order.

(A). Teaching
(B). Reconsideration
(C). Situation & Objectives
(D). Evaluation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (2) (B), (A), (C), (D).
  • (3) (B), (A), (D), (C).
  • (4) (C), (A), (D), (B).

Question 83:

What was the percentage share of the value of agricultural exports to national exports in 2021-22?

  • (1) 7.32 per cent
  • (2) 9.56 per cent
  • (3) 11.94 per cent
  • (4) 14.67 per cent

Question 84:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                                               List-II
(A). Microeconomics                                    (I). Real-Balance Effect
(B). Macroeconomics                                  (II). Price Theory
(C). Absolute Income Hypothesis              (III). Income and Employment Theory
(D). Pigou Effect                                          (IV). Drift Hypothesis


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 85:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): The term "Operational holding" refers to the gross cropped area cultivated by the farmer.
Statement (II): The objective of subsistence farming is to produce for both home and market.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 86:

Match List-I with List-II (Extension teaching methods):

List-I                                                         List-II
(A). Group Discussion                            (I). Face-to-face contact by the extension agent with the farmers at their home or farm for a                                                                                  specific purpose related to extension work.
(B). Method Demonstration                    (II). An extension method which is conducted by a participating farmer on his/her farm or home                                                                          under the guidance of an extension worker to prove by the evidence that the practice being                                                                            demonstrated is superior to the one in existence.
(C). Farm and Home Visit                       (III). A planned and purposive interchange of ideas and feelings among a small group of                                                                                         individuals under the supervision of a discussion leader, aimed at solving a common                                                                                       problem or planning a course of action.
(D). Result Demonstration                      (IV). An extension method in which an extension agent or a trained leader or a specialist shows                                                                           how to carry out an entirely new practice or an old practice in a better way to a group.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (II)
  • (3) (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 87:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                                                                                             List-II
(A). National Demonstration Project (NDP)                                              (I). 1974
(B). Drought Prone Area Development Programme (DPAP)                   (II). 1978
(C). Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP)                          (III). 1964
(D). Krishi Vigyan Kendra (KVK)                                                               (IV). 1971


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
  • (2) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 88:

Arrange the following institutions chronologically according to the years these were set up starting from the latest to the earliest:

(A) CAU Imphal (Central Agricultural University, Imphal)
(B) ICAR-CIFE Mumbai (ICAR-Central Institute of Fisheries Education, Mumbai)
(C) PAU Ludhiana (Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana)
(D) ICAR-CPRI Shimla (ICAR-Central Potato Research Institute, Shimla)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D).
  • (2) (A), (C), (B), (D).
  • (3) (A), (C), (D), (B).
  • (4) (A), (D), (B), (C).

Question 89:

If the TC (Total Cost) at 10 units of output is 55 and the Fixed Cost is 5, then the AVC (Average Variable Cost) at 10 units of output will be:

  • (1) 2.5
  • (2) 6
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 11

Question 90:

What distinguishes a primary group from a secondary group?

  • (1) Size and complexity
  • (2) Degree of formality and impersonality
  • (3) Stability and similarity of background
  • (4) Intensity of shared interests and association

Question 91:

What is not true about the e-NAM (National Agriculture Market)?

  • (1) It was launched in 2016.
  • (2) It has integrated 1361 mandis in the country.
  • (3) It is providing services to 1.8 crore farmers.
  • (4) The trading volume amounts to Rs 4.5 lakh crore.

Question 92:

When MPP (Marginal Physical Product) cuts APP (Average Physical Product) at its highest point then:

  • (1) MPP \(>\) APP
  • (2) MPP \(<\) APP
  • (3) MPP \(=\) APP
  • (4) MPP is also at its highest level

Question 93:

Which of the following weeds propagate through rhizomes?

(A). Agropyron repens
(B). Cyperus rotundus
(C). Cirsium arvense
(D). Cynodon dactylon

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (2) (A), (C) and (D) only.
  • (3) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Question 94:

Which of the following statements defines the term 'Capital' more appropriately?

  • (1) Capital is a flow concept
  • (2) Capital is the asset created by human efforts and not available in a natural form
  • (3) Capital is the same as money
  • (4) Capital is comprised of only tangible assets

Question 95:

Arrange the following countries in ascending order (from low to high) as per their present share in Asian Development Bank.

  • (1) (A), (D), (B), (C).
  • (2) (D), (B), (A), (C).
  • (3) (C), (B), (D), (A).
  • (4) (B), (C), (A), (D).

Question 96:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Adoption score is usually lower for owner cultivator than for tenant cultivator.
Statement (II): Communicability is the degree to which results of innovation may not be diffused to others.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (2) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.
  • (4) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.

Question 97:

Flared squares in cotton is caused by:

  • (1) Spodoptera litura
  • (2) Helicoverpa armigera
  • (3) Earias vitella
  • (4) Pectinophora gossypiella

Question 98:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Traditional leaders in rural areas uphold social and religious values through their inherited status and roles.
Statement (II): Emergent leaders in villages primarily gain influence through their wealth and power.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct and Statement (II) is the correct explanation of Statement (I).
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct but Statement (II) is NOT the correct explanation of Statement (I).
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 99:

Match List-I with List-II (Agricultural Schemes and Launch Years):

List-I                                                                                         List-II
(A). PM-KISAN                                                                        (I). 2015
(B). Soil Health Card Scheme                                               (II). 2019
(C). PMFBY (Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana)               (III). 2014
(D). Kisan Credit Card (KCC)                                               (IV). 1998

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
  • (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

Question 100:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): The problem of enterprise combination will not arise if the enterprises have supplementary relationship.
Statement (II): Decision making regarding the production level of outputs is insignificant if the outputs have joint relationship.


Question 101:

In a perfect competition model, the change in which of the following costs/imposition of taxes does not affect the equilibrium position of the firm in the short run.

(A). Increase in fixed cost
(B). Imposition of lump-sum tax
(C). Imposition of profit tax
(D). Imposition of specific sales tax (Per unit of output)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Question 102:

Leagans model of communication contains:

  • (1) 6 elements
  • (2) 5 elements
  • (3) 4 elements
  • (4) 3 elements

Question 103:

How can extension workers effectively promote cultural changes in rural India?

(A). Utilizing religious festivals for technology transfer
(B). Introducing new practices during times of calamities
(C). Ignoring existing cultural practices
(D). Considering the preferences and values of the local community

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (4) (B) and (D) only.

Question 104:

Match List-I with List-II (Agricultural Institutions and Locations):

List-I                                                                                              List-II 
(A). ICAR-National Dairy Research Institute                            (I). Hyderabad
(B). ICAR-Central Institute for Cotton Research                     (II). Karnal
(C). ICAR-National Research Centre for Grapes                    (III). Nagpur
(D). ICAR-Central Rice Research Institute                             (IV). Cuttack

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
  • (3) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
  • (4) (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)

Question 105:

The "Model of Communication" as given by Katz & Lazarsfeld (1955) has following elements; arrange them in correct sequence:

(A). Source
(B). Message
(C). Mass Media
(D). Opinion
(E). Public

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
  • (2) (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)
  • (3) (A), (C), (D), (E), (B)
  • (4) (A), (D), (E), (C), (B)

Question 106:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): Deeper sowing is advantageous in heavy soils whereas shallow sowing is recommended in light soils.
Statement (II): Seeds which germinate through epigeal germination should not be sown deep as it results in poor germination.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 107:

Arrange these financial and development institutions chronologically when these were set up in India starting from the earliest to the latest:

(A) FCI
(B) NABARD
(C) NCDC
(D) CACP

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (C), (D), (B)
  • (2) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (3) (C), (A), (D), (B)
  • (4) (D), (A), (C), (B)

Question 108:

Match List-I with List-II (Crop Diseases and Causal Organisms):

List-I                                                            List-II 
(A). Late Blight of Potato                          (I). Xanthomonas oryzae
(B). Bacterial Leaf Blight of Rice             (II). Phytophthora infestans
(C). Downy Mildew of Grapes                  (III). Plasmopara viticola
(D). Powdery Mildew of Wheat                (IV). Blumeria graminis

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
  • (2) (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
  • (3) (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
  • (4) (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

Question 109:

RAFTAAR stands for:

  • (1) Remunerative Approaches for Agriculture and Allied Sectors Rejuvenation
  • (2) Renewed Approaches for Agriculture and Allied Sectors Restructuring
  • (3) Responsive Agency for Agriculture and Allied Sectors Rejuvenation
  • (4) Receptive Agency for Agriculture and Allied Sectors Restructuring

Question 110:

How does the personality of an agricultural extension worker impact their effectiveness in the field?

  • (1) Personality has no influence on their effectiveness
  • (2) A positive and approachable personality enhances communication and rapport-building with farmers
  • (3) A strong personality leads to authoritarian leadership, which is effective in rural settings
  • (4) Technical knowledge outweighs personality traits in agricultural extension work

Question 111:

Which element of speech is often used to refer to as 'Paralanguage'?

  • (1) Non-verbal Communication
  • (2) Verbal Communication
  • (3) Vocal Communication
  • (4) Written Communication

Question 112:

Which of the following are the objectives of field trips?

(A). To provide recreational opportunities for participants
(B). To stimulate people to action and encourage adoption of practices
(C). To expose visitors to new and different situations
(D). To widen the vision of farmers and cater to group psychology and leadership

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (2) (B), (C) and (D) only.
  • (3) (A), (B), (C) and (D).
  • (4) (C) and (D) only.

Question 113:

Arrange the following crops on the basis of their yield in the ascending order:

(A) Arhar (Pigeon pea)
(B) Gram (Chickpea)
(C) Rice
(D) Urd (Black gram)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (D), (C)
  • (2) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (3) (D), (B), (A), (C)
  • (4) (D), (A), (B), (C)

Question 114:

Which of the following is NOT a principle of effective communication in extension?

  • (1) Clarity of message
  • (2) Two-way communication
  • (3) Technical Jargon
  • (4) Active listening

Question 115:

A renewed emphasis was given for the growth of the cooperative sector in India through the vision of "Sahakar-Se-Samriddhi" in recent times. This was so because co-operatives have following strong credentials. Choose the correct combination.

(A) A full-fledged Ministry of Cooperation was established in July 2021 to provide greater focus to the cooperative sector.
(B) There are 8.5 lakh registered cooperatives in the country with over 29 crore members.
(C) The Primary Agriculture Credit Societies (PACS) cover 98 per cent of villages in the country.
(D) Currently, around 29 per cent of agriculture finance is through cooperative societies.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (3) (A), (C) and (D) only.
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Question 116:

Which characteristics are commonly associated with Indian rural society?

(A). Full equality between men and women
(B). Predominant occupation based on agriculture
(C). Lack of social stratification based on caste
(D). Villages as units of rural society

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only.
  • (2) (A), (B) and (C) only.
  • (3) (B) and (D) only.
  • (4) (B), (C) and (D) only.

Question 117:

Given below are two statements:

Statement (I): DNA, RNA and proteins are micromolecules.
Statement (II): Nucleotide and amino acids are monomers of DNA/RNA and proteins, respectively.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (1) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
  • (2) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
  • (3) Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
  • (4) Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Question 118:

For a given production function: Y = 10 + 0.6X (Where Y is wheat output and X is fertilizer input), the coefficient 0.6 is called as:

(A). MPP
(B). Slope
(C). Elasticity of production
(D). APP

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (C) only.
  • (2) (D) only.
  • (3) (C) and (D) only.
  • (4) (A) and (B) only.

Question 119:

Arrange the steps in the process of farm financial management from beginning to end:

(A). Decision making
(B). Analysis
(C). Action
(D). Objective

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (D), (B), (A), (C)
  • (2) (D), (A), (C), (B)
  • (3) (A), (D), (B), (C)
  • (4) (B), (A), (D), (C)

Question 120:

If the price elasticity of demand for a commodity is -2.5 and the percentage decrease in the quantity demanded is 10%, find out the percentage change in its price.

  • (1) 25%
  • (2) -25%
  • (3) 4%
  • (4) -4%

Fees Structure

Structure based on different categories

CategoriesState
General1175
sc600
pwd600

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