TS PGLCET Question Paper 2025 (Available): Download TS PGLCET Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

Who has defined Law as "the prophecies of what court will do in fact, and nothing more pretentious"?

• (A) Jerome Frank
• (B) Oliver Wendell Holmes Jr.
• (C) Roscoe Pound
• (D) Hans Kelsen

The motto of which school of jurisprudence is ubi civitas ibi lex?

• (A) Analytical School
• (B) Philosophical School
• (C) Historical School
• (D) Realist School

Who is the author of the book "Law in the making"?

• (A) Albert Venn Dicey
• (B) Reginald Walter Micheal Dias
• (C) Carleton Kemp Allen
• (D) William Frederick Friedman

Who said that "Case-law is gold in the mine-a few grains of precious metal to the tons of useless matter, while the statute law is coin of the State which is ready for immediate use"?

• (A) Albert Venn Dicey
• (B) John Salmond
• (C) Rudolf Von Ihering
• (D) H. L. A. Hart

Which jurist believed that, criminality is closely related to the possession of certain physical qualities, as it is an atavistic phenomenon?

• (A) Charles Buckman Goring
• (B) Earnest Hooton
• (C) Cesare Lombroso
• (D) Oliver Wendell Holmes Jr.

Who distinguished expository jurisprudence from censorial jurisprudence?

• (A) Hans Kelsen
• (B) Jeremy Bentham
• (C) Lon L. Fuller
• (D) Thomas Erskine Holland

As per Hohfeld's Analysis, the presence of power in a person, implies the absence of __________ in another.

• (A) Immunity
• (B) Disability
• (C) Liability
• (D) Duty

Who referred to jurisprudence as “the eye of the law”?

• (A) Hans Kelsen
• (B) Julius Stone
• (C) Robert Keeton
• (D) Harold Laski

Who is a proponent of the Bracket Theory relating to personality in law?

• (A) Rudolf Von Ihering
• (B) Gierke
• (C) Holland
• (D) Karl Von Savigny

In which of the following theories, judges are no more than the discoverers of law?

• (A) Legal realism theory
• (B) Declaratory theory
• (C) Innovative theory
• (D) Law making theory

According to whom, animus domini is an essential element of possession?

• (A) Karl Von Savigny
• (B) Roscoe Pound
• (C) Leon Duguit
• (D) John Austin

Which of the following reflects the John Locke's theory of property?

• (A) Property rights arise from the will of the sovereign
• (B) Property exists only through state legislation and natural creation
• (C) Mixing one's labour with nature justifies creation of private property
• (D) Property rights are inherited through divine right

Ratio Decidendi means:

the reason or basis on which case is decided
the general observations made by the judge in the decision
the rule of law which is regarded as a binding authority
a ruling which is applicable to future cases as well as to the present dispute
 

• (A) i and ii are correct
• (B) ii and iii are correct
• (C) i, ii, iii and iv are correct
• (D) i, iii and iv are correct

According to Salmond, custom is a ___________ of law.

• (A) Formal source
• (B) Literary source
• (C) Historical material source
• (D) Legal material source

Which prominent jurist has developed the Will Theory of Rights?

• (A) H. L. A. Hart
• (B) Rudolf Van Ihering
• (C) Leon Duguit
• (D) John Salmond

As per the definition given by John Austin, ownership is a right unrestricted in point of ______.

• (A) User
• (B) Disposition
• (C) Duration
• (D) Determinate Thing

A precedent given per incuriam is _______________.

• (A) a decision given in a foreign language
• (B) a decision given on a rational basis with observations
• (C) a decision made in ignorance of a binding authority
• (D) a decision that is automatically binding

According to Henry Maine, “The movement of progressive societies has hitherto been a movement from ___________”.

• (A) Status to contract
• (B) Contract to status
• (C) Static to Dynamic
• (D) Dynamic to Static

The solidary obligation imposes ___________ liability in law.

• (A) Individual
• (B) Absolute
• (C) Strict
• (D) Joint and Several

Oscar Wilde's quote that “every saint has a past, every sinner has a future” reflects the concept of which theory of punishment?

• (A) Reformative Theory
• (B) Deterrent Theory
• (C) Preventive Theory
• (D) Retributive Theory

Article 43B of the Constitution of India deals with

• (A) Equal justice and free legal aid
• (B) Participation of workers in management of industries
• (C) Promotion of co-operative societies
• (D) Protection and improvement of environment

Arrange the following landmark cases relating to amendment of the Constitution of India in chronological order.

Waman Rao and Ors. v. Union of India
Minerva Mills v. Union of India
I.R. Coelho (Dead) By Lrs. v. State of Tamil Nadu \& Ors.
Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
 

• (A) a; b; d; c
• (B) d; b; a; c
• (C) c; b; a; d
• (D) d; c; b; a

Which of the following statements is true?

• (A) Article 124A of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of the collegium system for appointment of judges.
• (B) The Constitution of India does not provide for the establishment of the collegium system for appointment of judges.
• (C) The Judicial Appointments (Collegium System) Act, 1999 provides for the establishment of the collegium system in India.
• (D) The National Judicial Appointments Commission supplements the collegium system for appointment of judges in India.

Which body is primarily responsible for making recommendations to the President regarding distribution of taxes between Centre and States?

• (A) Public Accounts Committee
• (B) NITI Aayog
• (C) Finance Commission
• (D) GST Council

In Sukanya Shantha v. Union of India (2024), the Supreme Court held that _________.

• (A) The sub-classification of the SC and ST categories is permissible and States have the power to create these sub-classifications.
• (B) The provisions of prison manuals of several States allowing caste-based discrimination for division of manual labour violate the Constitutional principles.
• (C) Bar Councils cannot charge more than the amount specified under section 24 of Advocates Act, 1961 as enrolment fee.
• (D) A bail condition requiring an accused to share Google Maps pin with the investigating officer to access his location violates Right to Privacy.

Reservation in promotions with consequential seniority in favour of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is facilitated by which provision of Indian Constitution?

• (A) Article 16(3)
• (B) Article 16(4)
• (C) Article 16(4A)
• (D) Article 16(4B)

In which case, one L.K.G. student (minor) filed a PIL through his guardian seeking the removal of a country liquor shop located next to his school premises?

• (A) Master Yuvraj Sunil Nanavare (minor) v. State of Maharashtra (2019)
• (B) Priyanshu (minor) v. State of U.P. (2021)
• (C) Master Atharva (minor) and anr v. State of UP and Ors. (2020)
• (D) Master Vinayak (minor) v. NCT of Delhi (2024)

Under Article 76 of the Constitution of India, __________ shall appoint the Attorney General of India, who shall be a person qualified to be appointed as the ___________.

• (A) the President; Chief Justice of High Court
• (B) the Prime Minister; Judge of the Supreme Court
• (C) the Chief Justice of India; Chief Justice of the High Court
• (D) the President; Judge of the Supreme Court

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court of India, observed the doctrine of pre-decision hearing and post-decision hearing?

• (A) ADM Jabalpur v. Shivkant Shukla (1976)
• (B) I. C. Golaknath v. State of Punjab (1967)
• (C) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)
• (D) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan (1965)

By which Constitutional Amendment, Article 51A(k) was inserted into the Constitution of India?

• (A) The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002
• (B) The Constitution (Eighty-third Amendment) Act, 2000
• (C) The Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act, 2003
• (D) The Constitution (Eighty-fourth Amendment) Act, 2001

The Supreme Court has overruled its decision in E. V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh (2004) relating to sub-classification of Scheduled Castes (SCs) for reservation purposes, in which case?

• (A) Md. Gulzar v. State of Bihar (2025)
• (B) Aligarh Muslim University v. Naresh Agarwal (2024)
• (C) Krishna Kumar Singh v. State of Bihar (2017)
• (D) State of Punjab v. Davinder Singh (2024)

Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals specifically with the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers or river valleys?

• (A) Article 131
• (B) Article 262
• (C) Article 263
• (D) Article 246

In which case, the SC held that right to digital access is an intrinsic component of right to life and liberty, and directed the State to proactively design and implement inclusive digital ecosystems that serve not only the privileged but also the marginalized?

• (A) Just Rights for Children Alliance v. S. Harish (2024)
• (B) Sabu Mathew George v. Union of India (2017)
• (C) Amar Jain v. Union of India and Ors. (2025)
• (D) Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020)

The Supreme Court first recognized that Parliamentary privileges do not automatically override the fundamental rights in which case?

• (A) Pandit M.S.M. Sharma v. Sri Krishna Sinha
• (B) Keshav Singh v. Speaker Legislative Assembly, U.P.
• (C) Raja Ram Pal v. Speaker, Lok Sabha
• (D) Gunupati Keshavram Reddy v. Nafisul Hasan

A Bill dealing with which of the following does not constitute a “Money Bill” under the Constitution of India?

• (A) Amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken by the Government of India
• (B) Regulation of borrowing of money by the Government of India
• (C) Custody and withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund of India
• (D) Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by any local authority

Who has called Indian Federalism as "Cooperative Federalism"?

• (A) Granville Austin
• (B) K. C. Wheare
• (C) H. M. Seervai
• (D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

Which of the following constitutional amendments required ratification by not less than half of the State Legislatures?

• (A) 1^st Amendment
• (B) 42^nd Amendment
• (C) 73^rd Amendment
• (D) 101^st Amendment

In which case Supreme Court laid down the rules in relation to doctrine of severability under the Indian Constitution?

• (A) R.M.D. Chamarbaugwala v. Union of India (1957)
• (B) Keshavan Madhava Menon v. State of Bombay (1951)
• (C) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)
• (D) Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)

The Supreme Court recently in a landmark decision has held that governor's delay in granting assent to 10 bills as erroneous and illegal, and granted assent to the Bills. Which provision of the Constitution was interpreted primarily in this case?

• (A) Article 200
• (B) Article 110
• (C) Article 74
• (D) Article 84

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has held that not all privately owned property is a "material resource of the community" in an 8:1 majority?

• (A) Property Owners Association v. State of Maharashtra (2024)
• (B) Mineral Area Development Authority v. Steel Authority of India (2024)
• (C) Association of Democratic Reforms v. Union of India (2024)
• (D) Municipal Corporation of Greater Mumbai v. Property Owners Association (2022)

Who defined International Law as "the name for the body of customary and conventional rules, which are considered legally binding by civilized States in their intercourse with each other"?

• (A) Lawrence Oppenheim
• (B) Hugo Grotius
• (C) Henry Dunant
• (D) Malcolm Shaw

Erga Omnes obligations refer to:

• (A) Obligations owed to a specific state.
• (B) Obligations that can be revoked unilaterally.
• (C) Obligations owed to the international community as a whole.
• (D) Obligations applicable only in wartime.

Maritime Delimitation in the Black Sea, a dispute between which two countries?

• (A) Romania and Ukraine
• (B) Romania and Hungary
• (C) Ukraine and Moldova
• (D) Ukraine and Slovakia

In which year, India has enacted the Diplomatic Relations (Vienna Convention) Act to give effect to the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations?

• (A) 1961
• (B) 1965
• (C) 1972
• (D) 1974

What is the core principle of the Doctrine of Renvoi?

• (A) The court applies its own domestic law without considering foreign law
• (B) The court refers a case back to the law of its origin
• (C) The court prioritizes international law over other legal systems
• (D) The court strictly adheres to the rules of International Court of Justice

Which one of the following is not the objective of the United Nations?

• (A) Maintenance of international peace and security
• (B) Ensuring respect for treaty obligations
• (C) Protection of fundamental human rights of the people
• (D) Establishment of democratic court throughout the world

The concept of State Sovereignty was established in which treaty?

• (A) Treaty of Versailles
• (B) Vienna Convention
• (C) Peace of Westphalia
• (D) Congress of Vienna

Which Convention applies to all international carriage of persons, luggage or goods performed by aircraft for reward?

• (A) Warsaw Convention
• (B) Havana Convention
• (C) Chicago Convention
• (D) Paris Convention

As per Article 11 of the Rome Statute of ICC, Jurisdiction ratione temporis means ____________.

• (A) Court may exercise jurisdiction with respect to crimes committed retrospectively before the entry into force of this Statute
• (B) Court may exercise jurisdiction if the state agrees under a bilateral treaty
• (C) Court may exercise jurisdiction for the crimes committed after the entry into force of this Statute
• (D) Court may exercise jurisdiction if the state agrees under a multilateral treaty

Which Article of the 1951 Refugee Convention deals with the principle of non-refoulement?

• (A) Article 33
• (B) Article 37
• (C) Article 14
• (D) Article 51

In North Sea Continental Shelf Case (1969), the ICJ primarily emphasized:

• (A) Absolute sovereignty over the continental shelf
• (B) Equidistance as mandatory
• (C) Equitable principles for maritime delimitation
• (D) Common heritage of mankind

Which of the following is correct about salient features of the Outer Space Treaty, 1967?

• (A) Outer space is subject to national appropriation by claim of sovereignty, by means of occupation, or by other means.
• (B) State parties to the treaty undertake to place in orbit around the earth objects carrying nuclear weapons or weapons of mass destruction.
• (C) Outer space shall be free for exploration by all States without any discrimination.
• (D) State parties to the treaty shall treat astronauts as nationals of the state of the astronauts and the rules of nationality shall apply in outer space, and such State shall be only be responsible for the astronauts.

In which of the following cases the International Court of Justice laid down the principle of 'Genuine Link' and 'Effective Nationality'?

• (A) Tunis and Morocco case (1923)
• (B) Liechtenstein v. Guatemala (1955)
• (C) Barcelona Traction case (1970)
• (D) Panama Canal case (1958)

International Court of Justice (ICJ) can provide interim measures in a case pending before it, by virtue of powers conferred under which provision of the Statute of ICJ?

• (A) Article 39
• (B) Article 41
• (C) Article 43
• (D) Article 47

'Accretion' as a mode of acquisition of territory means:

• (A) Loss of territory in a war
• (B) Acquisition of territory through natural causes
• (C) Loss of territory as a result of a treaty
• (D) Acquisition of territory through peaceful means

Which of the following principles confers nationality on the basis of blood/lineage?

• (A) Jus Cogens
• (B) Jus Soli
• (C) Jus Gentium
• (D) Jus Sanguinis

The Madrid Protocol was brought into force in India through amendment to the Trade Marks Act in which year?

• (A) 2010
• (B) 2024
• (C) 2016
• (D) 2019

What is the Priority period under the Paris Convention for filing a patent application in another member country?

• (A) 3 months
• (B) 12 months
• (C) 18 months
• (D) 24 months

Which provision of the Copyright Act, 1957 deals with copyright in design which is registered under the Designs Act, 2000?

• (A) Section 15
• (B) Section 16
• (C) Section 21
• (D) Section 23

Which provision of the Patents Act, 1970 deals, in respect of any patent in force, with the circumstances of national emergency or in circumstances of extreme urgency or in case of public non-commercial use, to enable the Central Government to issue compulsory licenses?

• (A) Section 91
• (B) Section 102
• (C) Section 92
• (D) Section 104

The rule laid down in Hadley v. Baxendale (1854) was incorporated under which provision of Indian Contract Act?

• (A) Section 70
• (B) Section 74
• (C) Section 73
• (D) Section 75

Which of the following is landmark case dealing with effect of fraud in formation of a contract?

• (A) Lalman Shukla v. Gouri Dutt (1913)
• (B) Derry v. Peek (1889)
• (C) Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co. (1893)
• (D) Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram Bangur (1954)

Natural love and affection can be a consideration for a valid contract under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 as per ___________.

• (A) Section 23
• (B) Section 25
• (C) Section 20
• (D) Section 28

In cases of oppression in affairs of a company, which provision of Companies Act, 2013 stipulates who have the right to make an application?

• (A) Section 241
• (B) Section 244
• (C) Section 246
• (D) Section 248

___________ means the segregation of ownership and management from the trading rights of the members of a recognised stock exchange in accordance with a scheme approved by the Securities and Exchange Board of India.

• (A) Demutualisation
• (B) Corporatisation
• (C) Dematerialization
• (D) Recomposition

Which of the following statements is true?

• (A) The articles of a company shall state the objects for which the company is proposed to be incorporated.
• (B) A private company may issue securities to public through prospectus and list the company in recognized stock exchange.
• (C) Every listed public company shall have at least one-third of the total number of directors as independent directors.
• (D) A company may be wound up by the Tribunal, if the company has, by ordinary resolution, resolved that the company be wound up by the Tribunal.

In which of the following cases Supreme Court held that the Competition Act applies to State monopolies, Government companies and Public Sector Undertakings?

• (A) Coal India Ltd \& Anr. v. Competition Commission of India \& Anr. (2023)
• (B) Alliance Digital Foundation v. Competition Commission of India \& others (2023)
• (C) JCB India Ltd \& Anr. v. Competition Commission of India \& Anr. (2024)
• (D) Competition Commission of India v. State of Mizoram \& Ors. (2022)

The sale of goods or provision of services, at a price which is below the cost, as may be determined by regulations, of production of the goods or provision of services, with a view to reduce competition or eliminate the competitors, is called _______________.

• (A) Dominant Position
• (B) Tie-in Arrangement
• (C) Predatory Price
• (D) Resale price Maintenance

Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) shall be completed within a period of ___________ days from the date of admission of the application by the Adjudicating Authority.

• (A) 30
• (B) 60
• (C) 90
• (D) 180

Who is corporate debtor as per section 3(8) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016?

• (A) A corporate person who owes a debt to any person
• (B) A corporate person who owes a debt to a corporate person
• (C) Any person who owes a debt to a corporate person
• (D) Any person who owes a debt to any person

The Central Government has constituted National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) under __________ of the Companies Act, 2013.

• (A) Section 10FB
• (B) Section 10FR
• (C) Section 10FX
• (D) Section 10GB

Which of the following statements is not true?

• (A) An agreement by way of wager is void and no suit shall be brought for recovering anything alleged to be won on any wager.
• (B) When a promisee accepts performance of the promise from a third person, he cannot afterwards enforce it against the promisor.
• (C) The performance of any promise may be made in any manner, or at any time which the promisee prescribes or sanctions.
• (D) When a contract becomes void, any person who has received any advantage under such contract is not bound to restore it.

In which landmark case the Apex Court addressed the systemic issue of child labor, focusing on constitutional rights and the role of the state in protecting children?

• (A) M. C. Mehta v. State of Tamil Nadu (1996)
• (B) Sujeet Kumar v. State of Bihar (2025)
• (C) Bachpan Bachao Andolan v. Union of India (2011)
• (D) Vishal Jeet v. Union of India (1990)

Under the Trade Unions Act 1926, which provision deals with the effects of change of name and amalgamation of Trade Unions?

• (A) Section 12
• (B) Section 17
• (C) Section 26
• (D) Section 32

What is the minimum age requirement to be a member of a Trade Union?

• (A) 15 years
• (B) 18 years
• (C) 21 years
• (D) 14 years

The term “collective bargaining” was first used in the field of industrial relations in which year?

• (A) 1956
• (B) 1891
• (C) 1948
• (D) 1826

Till what age of the child will a mother get two nursing breaks in the course of her daily work, under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961?

• (A) 9 months
• (B) 15 months
• (C) 12 months
• (D) 24 months

The maximum period for which any woman shall be entitled to maternity benefit shall be _______ weeks of which not more than _______ weeks shall precede the date of her expected delivery.

• (A) 26; 8
• (B) 12; 6
• (C) 24; 12
• (D) 18; 6

Working for __________ days during the preceding 12-month period is considered continuous service for a period of one year, even if there are interruptions, under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.

• (A) 180
• (B) 200
• (C) 240
• (D) 300

Which of the following statements is not true about strikes and lockouts?

• (A) No employer carrying on any public utility service shall lock-out any of his workmen without giving notice of lock-out, within six weeks before locking out.
• (B) No workman who is employed in any industrial establishment shall go on strike in breach of contract during the pendency of conciliation proceedings before a Board.
• (C) No person shall knowingly expend any money in direct furtherance or support of any illegal strike or lock-out.
• (D) No person employed in a public utility service shall go on strike in breach of contract within seven days of giving such notice of strike.

Which section of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 deals with the prohibition of lay-off?

• (A) Section 25M
• (B) Section 25R
• (C) Section 30A
• (D) Section 33C

Under the Wage Code, 2019, the term “wages” excludes which of the following?

• (A) Bonus
• (B) Dearness Allowance
• (C) House Rent Allowance
• (D) Gratuity

As per the Factories Act 1948, no woman shall be required or allowed to work in a factory except between the hours of:

• (A) 05:00 A.M. and 06:00 P.M.
• (B) 07:00 A.M. and 08:00 P.M.
• (C) 08:00 A.M. and 09:00 P.M.
• (D) 06:00 A.M. and 07:00 P.M.

The Factories Act, 1948 is applicable to a factory, meaning any premises with workers are working on any day of the preceding twelve months, and in any part of which a manufacturing process is being carried on with the aid of power.

• (A) 10 or more
• (B) 20 or more
• (C) 50 or more
• (D) 100 or more

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court expounded the law on criterion used for determining whether an employee is a workman under Industrial Disputes Act 1947, and held that employee in managerial position is not workman?

• (A) M/s. Bharti Airtel Limited v. A. S. Raghavendra (2024)
• (B) Syndicate Bank and Ors. v. K. Umesh Nayak (1994)
• (C) Ushaben Joshi v. Union of India \& Ors. (2024)
• (D) Bangalore Water Supply \& Sewerage Board v. A. Rajappa (1978)

The Trade Union cannot spend its common fund on:

• (A) Education of children of its members
• (B) Funding of a political party
• (C) Payment of salary to its office bearers
• (D) Legal Proceedings related to Union or its members

Which of the following is the first registered Trade Union in India?

• (A) Madras Labour Union
• (B) Bombay Labour Union
• (C) Allahabad Labour Union
• (D) All India Trade Union Congress

Which Act is a key part of the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020?

• (A) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
• (B) The Factories Act, 1948
• (C) The Minimum Wages Act, 1948
• (D) The Trade Unions Act, 1926

In one of landmark judgment, the Supreme Court of India observed that the presence of an accused in the Indian territory at the time the offence had been committed, would not be an essential ingredient for the person to be charged under the provisions of the Indian Penal Code. Identify the case:

• (A) Mobarik Ali Ahmed v. The State of Bombay (1957)
• (B) M.T. Enrica Lexie \& Anr. v. Doramma \& Ors (2012)
• (C) State Bank of India v. Dr. Vijay Mallya (2002)
• (D) Emperor v. Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, (1911)

The legal maxim qui facit per alium facit per se was applied in which of the following landmark cases relating to misappropriation of property?

• (A) Overseas Tankship (UK) Ltd v. Morts Dock \& Engineering Co Ltd. (1961)
• (B) The Mayor of Bradford v. Pickles (1895)
• (C) Hamlyn v. Houston \& Co. (1903)
• (D) Lloyd v. Grace, Smith \& Co. (1912)

The landmark case of Peninsular \& Oriental Steam Navigation Company v. Secretary of State (1861) primarily deals with which of the following?

• (A) Constitutional functions of the State
• (B) Sovereign and non-sovereign functions of the State
• (C) Vicarious Liability of State
• (D) Residuary functions of the Government

The rape and murder of a thirty-one-year-old female postgraduate trainee doctor in August, 2024 sparked a huge protest in Kolkata and across the country. In which medical college did the incident take place?

• (A) AIIMS Kalyani
• (B) KPC Medical College and Hospital
• (C) The Calcutta Homoeopathic Medical College and Hospital
• (D) R. G. Kar Medical College and Hospital

Nichols v. Marsland (1876) is an English case that established the defence of __________.

• (A) Inevitable accident
• (B) Necessity
• (C) Plaintiff the wrongdoer
• (D) Act of God

Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

• (A) R v. Wheat and Stocks --- mistake of law
• (B) M'Naghten case --- defence of insanity
• (C) R v. Tolson --- defence of infancy
• (D) R v. Dudley \& Stephens --- defence of necessity

In Arnesh Kumar v. State of Bihar (2014), the Supreme Court has established guidelines to prevent arbitrary arrests in cases relating to the offence under ______________.

• (A) Section 498A of IPC
• (B) Section 376 of IPC
• (C) Section 302 of IPC
• (D) Section 304B of IPC

Under Indian Penal Code 1860, “Right to Private Defence” extends to __________.

• (A) Protection of both body and property
• (B) Protection of property only
• (C) Protection of body only
• (D) Protection of neither body nor property

The Single Judge Bench of Justice Devashis Baruah was dealing with a Writ Petition filed by a lawyer alleging an infraction to Article 21 of the Constitution for violating his basic fundamental right by the Police Authorities by handcuffing him without just cause. On which State police, the High Court imposed Rs. 5,00,000/- for handcuffing an advocate?

• (A) Assam
• (B) Kerala
• (C) Tripura
• (D) Telangana

A makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box, and finds after so opening the box, that there is no jewel in it. What is the nature of his offence as per the general principles of criminal law?

Inchoate Crime
Impossible Attempt
Immature Offence
 

• (A) i and ii
• (B) i and iii
• (C) i, ii, iii
• (D) ii and iii

What is the minimum punishment for voluntarily causing grievous hurt using acid under BNS?

• (A) 10 years imprisonment
• (B) 7 years imprisonment
• (C) Life imprisonment and fine
• (D) Rigorous imprisonment up to 14 years

Corporate Criminal liability is well established in India and clarified by Supreme Court in various decisions. Which among the following cases is not relevant to the topic?

• (A) Standard Chartered Bank v. Director of Enforcement (2005)
• (B) Sunil Bharti Mittal v. Central Bureau of India (2015)
• (C) Iridium India Telecom Ltd. v. Motorola Inc. (2011)
• (D) G. J. Raja v. Tejraj Surana (2019)

Which section under BNS criminalizes voyeurism, defined as capturing images of a woman engaged in a private act without consent?

• (A) Section 77
• (B) Section 74
• (C) Section 75
• (D) Section 76

The rule res ipsa loquitur is related to the tort of:

• (A) Negligence
• (B) False Imprisonment
• (C) Defamation
• (D) Malicious Prosecution

What is the limitation period within which a complaint shall be filed under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?

• (A) 3 months
• (B) 6 months
• (C) 1 year
• (D) 2 years

The term “product liability” is defined under which provision of Consumer Protection Act, 2019?

• (A) Section 2(34)
• (B) Section 2(36)
• (C) Section 2(40)
• (D) Section 2(45)

In which of the following cases the Supreme Court has recognized the right against the adverse effects of climate change?

• (A) M. K. Ranjitsinh v. Union of India (2024)
• (B) Ashok Kumar Sinha v. Union of India (2024)
• (C) T. N. Godavarman Thirumulpad v. Union of India (2023)
• (D) Binai Kumar Dalei and Ors. v. State of Odisha (2022)

Under Christian Law, non-compliance of decree of Restitution of Conjugal Rights shall act as one of the grounds for divorce after how many years of passing of decree?

• (A) 3 Years
• (B) 2 Years
• (C) 4 Years
• (D) 1 Year

In which case, the Supeme Court held that an unmarried Hindu daughter can claim maintenance from her father until she is unable to maintain herself, by an application under Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956?

• (A) Abhilasha v. Prakash and Ors. (2020)
• (B) Manish Jain v. Akanksha Jain (2017)
• (C) Rajnesh v. Neha and Ors. (2020)
• (D) Ashnoor Singh v. Harpal Kaur (2020)

Which of the following is a landmark judgment relating to cyber-crimes in India?

• (A) Amar Singh v. Union of India (2011)
• (B) Dr. L Prakash v. State of Tamil Nadu (2002)
• (C) Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India (2020)
• (D) R. S. Bagga v. Union of India (2015)

The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 does not provide for the establishment of which of the following institutions for better protection of human rights?

• (A) Human Rights Courts
• (B) National Human Rights Commission
• (C) State Human Rights Council
• (D) State Human Rights Commission

The Delhi Press Patra Prakashan, filed a trademark infringement suit against BCCI, for using the name of their magazine for the AI-powered robotic dog unveiled during the IPL, 2025. What is the name of the robotic dog?

• (A) Tinkle
• (B) Champak
• (C) Amar
• (D) Skippy

In which case the court said that only a consumer can choose whether to opt for arbitration or seek remedy before the forums established under consumer welfare legislations, after the dispute has arisen?

• (A) Mandeep Singh v National Insurance Company Ltd and Anr. (2024)
• (B) Indian Medical Association v V.P. Shantha and Others (1995)
• (C) M. Hemalatha Devi \& Ors. v. B. Udayasri (2024)
• (D) Sehgal School of Competition v. Dalbir Singh (2008)

In which case the Supreme Court observed that “She cannot be treated as a chattel at the age of 14 years to hand over her custody to her biological father where she has not lived ever since her birth. The stability of the child is also of paramount consideration”?

• (A) Shayara Bano v. Union of India (2017)
• (B) Nahas v. State of Kerala (2020)
• (C) Shazia Aman Khan and another v. State of Orissa (2024)
• (D) Mansoor Saheb v. Salima (2024)

The Supreme Court in a decision, with 4:1 majority recently held that Courts have a limited power to modify an arbitral award under Section 34 of the Arbitration Act. Who among the following judges has given dissenting opinion in the decision?

• (A) Justice Sanjiv Khanna
• (B) Justice B. R. Gavai
• (C) Justice P. V. Sanjay Kumar
• (D) Justice K. V. Vishwanathan

An information shall ordinarily be provided in the form in which it is sought unless it would disproportionately divert the resources of the public authority or would be detrimental to the safety or preservation of the record in question. Which provision of the RTI Act, 2005 contains such exception?

• (A) Section 7(9)
• (B) Section 8(1)(d)
• (C) Section 7(8)
• (D) Section 8(1)(j)

Fill in the blanks based on the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 as to the relation by blood.
Two persons are said to be related to each other by __________ when they are descended from a common ancestor by the same wife, and by __________ when they are descended from a common ancestor, but by different wives; two persons are said to be related to each other by __________ when they are descended from a common ancestress but by different husbands.

• (A) Full Blood; Half Blood; Uterine Blood
• (B) Half Blood; Full Blood; Uterine Blood
• (C) Uterine Blood; Half Blood; Full Blood
• (D) Full Blood; Uterine Blood; Half Blood

As per Section 2(1)(w) of Information Technology Act, 2000 “intermediary”, with respect to any electronic records, the defination means any person who on behalf of another person receives, stores, or transmits that record or provides any service with respect to that record and includes __________.

telecom service and network service providers,
internet and webhosting service providers except search engines
online payment sites and online-auction sites
online-market places except cyber cafes
 

• (A) i and ii are correct
• (B) i and iii are correct
• (C) ii and iii are correct
• (D) i and iv are correct

In which case, the Supreme Court has upheld the rights of senior citizens to reclaim property under Section 23 of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007?

• (A) Vineeta Sharma v. Rakesh Sharma (2020)
• (B) Harsh Bubna \& Anr. v. Suryaprakash Bubna and Anr. (2025)
• (C) Urmila Dixit v. Sunil Sharan Dixit (2025)
• (D) Supriyo @ Supriya Chakraborty \& Anr v. Union of India (2023)

__________ means any substance or preparation which, by reason of its chemical or physico-chemical properties or handling, is liable to cause harm to human beings, other living creatures, plants, micro-organism, property, or the environment as per Section 2 (e) of the Environmental Protection Act, 1986.

• (A) Radioactive Material
• (B) Hazardous Substance
• (C) Explosives Substance
• (D) Corrosive Material

In which case, it was held that a demand notice sent through email or WhatsApp is a valid notice under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, as long as it meets the requirements of the Section 13 of Information Technology Act, 2000?

• (A) M/s. Lyka Labs Limited and ors. v. State of Maharashtra and anr. (2023)
• (B) Rajendra v. State of U.P and anr. (2024)
• (C) Bijoy Kumar Moni v. Paresh Manna (2024)
• (D) Pramod R. S. v. State of Karnataka (2023)

In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has clarified regarding the court-annexed ADR under Section 89 of CPC?

• (A) M/s. Afcons Infrastructure Ltd. v. M/s. Cherian Varkey Construction Co. Ltd. (2010)
• (B) Supreme Court Bar Association v. Union of India \& Anr. (1998)
• (C) Ishwar Chand Jain v. High Court of Punjab \& Haryana (1999)
• (D) Supreme Court Bar Association \& Anr. v. State of Uttar Pradesh \& Ors. (2025)