The All India AYUSH Post Graduate Entrance Test (AIAPGET) is a national-level entrance exam conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) on behalf of the Ministry of AYUSH, Government of India. It is the only entrance exam for admission into MD (Homeopathy) programs offered by various government, private, and deemed universities across India. There are 120 MCQs in 2 hours (120 minutes) and total of 480 marks, awarded +4 for each correct answer, -1 for each wrong answer.
AIAPGET Homepathy 2024 6 July Question Paper PDF Download
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Consider the following statements about their correctness regarding the diagnosis and treatment of the acute scrotum:
(A) Torsion of the testis must be assumed until proven otherwise
(B) Testicular torsion can present with chronic inguinal or abdominal pain
(C) Torsion of a testicular appendage usually occurs just before puberty
(D) An incarcerated inguinal hernia must be considered in the differential diagnosis
(E) If torsion is confirmed, an orchidopexy should not be performed on both sides
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Remedies for erratic pains are
[(A)] KALI BICH
[(B)] SULPHUR
[(C)] PULSATILLA
[(D)] LAC CANINUM
[(E)] NUX VOMICA
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Melanoma is a cancer of melanocytes and can, therefore, arise only in skin.
Statement II : Breslow thickness of a melanoma is the most important prognostic indicator in the absence of lymph node metastases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Arrange the pressure sore frequency in descending order.
[(A)] Heel
[(B)] Greater trochanter
[(C)] Malleolus (lateral then medial)
[(D)] Ischium
[(E)] Sacrum
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Given below are two statements with respect to clinical features of mesenteric cysts
Statement I : Mesenteric Cysts occur most commonly in children.
Statement II : The most common presentation is a painful abdominal swelling near the umbilicus.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[(1)] \( Both Statement I and Statement II are true \)
[(2)] \( Both Statement I and Statement II are false \)
[(3)] \( Statement I is true but Statement II is false \)
[(4)] \( Statement I is false but Statement II is true \)
Given below are two statements with respect to the diagnosis of Mycetoma.
Statement I \quad : Mycetoma usually presents early as it is very painful.
Statement II \quad : MRI shows typical ‘dot-in-circle’ sign.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Match List I with List II :
List I
(Common name of the remedy)
[(A)] Baneberry
[(B)] Barberry
[(C)] Indian hemp
[(D)] Indian nettle
List II
(Latin name of the remedy)
[(I)] \( Berberis vulgaris \)
[(II)] \( Apocynum cannabicum \)
[(III)] \( Acalypha indica \)
[(IV)] \( Actaea spicata \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
View Solution
The correct matching of the common names of the homeopathic remedies in List I with their corresponding Latin names in List II is as follows:
Baneberry (A) is the common name for \( \textbf{Actaea spicata (IV)} \).
Barberry (B) is the common name for \( \textbf{Berberis vulgaris (I)} \).
Indian hemp (C) is the common name for \( \textbf{Apocynum cannabicum (II)} \).
Indian nettle (D) is the common name for \( \textbf{Acalypha indica (III)} \).
Therefore, the correct combination is (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III). Quick Tip:Materia Medica: Botanical Nomenclature. Familiarity with both the common and Latin names of homeopathic remedies is essential for accurate prescribing and understanding of materia medica. Latin names provide a standardized and universally recognized identification of the plant source.
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): \quad The Badiaga mother substance is prepared under class VII (old method).
Reasons (R): \quad The Badiaga drug substance is dry insoluble in nature.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
During trituration, HPI divided the sugar of milk in which ratio in decimal scale?
The certificate of renewal to manufacture for sale or for distribution of Homoeopathic medicines is issued under
In a prescription, directions to the patient are given under :
Who proposed the double blind method of proving of drugs in healthy volunteers?
Glucose and Fructose are fermented into ethyl alcohol under the influence of :
Which among the following medicine does not belong to Compositae family?
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Digitonin of Digitalis is an example of saponin with distinctive property of frothing.
Reasons (R): Saponin are plant glycosides and they are non-crystalline and dissolve in water with colloidal solutions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I \quad : American Homoeopathic Pharmacopoeia, in its earlier editions, divided all vegetables and animal drug substance into four classes for preparation of mother tincture.
Statement II \quad : The amount of drug substance was 1/2, 1/3, 1/6 and 1/10 in each of the respective classes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Match List I with List II :
List I
DRUGS
[(A)] Chamomilla
[(B)] Euphrasia
[(C)] Chelidonium
[(D)] Belladonna
List II
SEASON FOR COLLECTION
[(I)] \( Second year growth \)
[(II)] \( Beginning of flowering \)
[(III)] \( When in flower \)
[(IV)] \( Before flowering \)
View Solution
The correct matching of the homeopathic drugs in List I with their ideal season for collection in List II is as follows, based on pharmacognostic considerations for optimal medicinal properties:
Chamomilla (A): The flowering tops are typically collected when in full flower (III) for maximum active constituents.
Euphrasia (B): The whole plant, especially the aerial parts, is usually collected during the second year of growth (I) or when the plant is in flower.
Chelidonium (C): The whole plant, or sometimes just the fresh flowering herb, is generally collected before flowering (IV) or at the beginning of flowering when the sap content is high.
Belladonna (D): The leaves are usually collected during the beginning of flowering (II) when the alkaloid content is optimal. The roots are typically collected in the autumn after the berries have ripened. Considering the options, the collection of leaves is implied here.
Therefore, the correct combination is (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II). Quick Tip:Pharmacognosy: Time of Collection. The stage of plant growth and the time of year significantly influence the concentration and quality of medicinal constituents in plants. Proper timing of collection is crucial in pharmacognosy to ensure the potency and efficacy of the derived homeopathic mother tinctures.
Match List I with List II :
List I
(Nosodes)
[(A)] Proteus
[(B)] Pyrogenium
[(C)] Nectrianinum
[(D)] Diphtherinum
List II
(Source)
[(I)] \( Cancer of trees \)
[(II)] \( Bowel nodes \)
[(III)] \( Disease product of Human beings \)
[(IV)] \( Decomposition of meat of beef \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
View Solution
Nosodes are homeopathic remedies prepared from diseased tissues, secretions, or excretions. The correct matching of the nosodes in List I with their sources in List II is as follows:
Proteus (A) is a nosode prepared from bowel nodes (II), specifically from the Proteus bacteria isolated from them.
Pyrogenium (B) is a nosode prepared from the decomposition of meat of beef (IV) or sometimes from septic pus.
Nectrianinum (C) is a nosode prepared from a fungus, \( Nectria ditissima \), which causes cancer of trees (I) (canker).
Diphtherinum (D) is a nosode prepared from the disease product of human beings (III), specifically from the Klebs-Loeffler bacillus or the diphtheritic membrane.
Therefore, the correct combination is (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III). Quick Tip:Homeopathic Materia Medica: Nosodes. Nosodes represent a unique category of homeopathic remedies. Understanding their origins is crucial for appreciating their potential therapeutic applications, often related to the disease or source from which they are derived.
Match List I with List II :
List I
(Sign)
[(A)] String sign of Kantor
[(B)] Claw sign
[(C)] Bird’s beak appearance
[(D)] Fallen leaf sign
List II
(Clinical condition)
[(I)] \( Achalasia Cardia \)
[(II)] \( Simple bone cyst \)
[(III)] \( Crohn’s Disease \)
[(IV)] \( Intussusception \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
View Solution
Certain radiological or clinical signs are characteristically associated with specific clinical conditions. The correct matching in this case is:
String sign of Kantor (A) is a radiological finding typically associated with Crohn’s Disease (III), representing the narrowed lumen of the terminal ileum due to stricture formation.
Claw sign (B) is a radiographic feature seen in Intussusception (IV), where the intussusceptum (the inner portion of the bowel) appears to be grasped by the intussuscipiens (the outer portion).
Bird’s beak appearance (C) is a characteristic finding on barium swallow in Achalasia Cardia (I), showing the smooth tapering of the distal esophagus at the lower esophageal sphincter.
Fallen leaf sign (D) is a radiographic sign often associated with a Simple bone cyst (II), where a fragment of cortical bone has fallen through the fluid-filled cyst.
Therefore, the correct combination is (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II). Quick Tip:Radiology: Diagnostic Signs. Recognizing these classic radiological signs is crucial for accurate diagnosis in various clinical conditions. They often provide strong clues and help narrow down the differential diagnoses.
Match List I with List II :
List I
(Age Group)
[(A)] < 10 years
[(B)] Teenage
[(C)] Reproductive age
[(D)] > 60 years
List II
(Common Malignancy)
[(I)] \( Multiple Myeloma \)
[(II)] \( Eosinophilic granuloma \)
[(III)] \( Ewing’s Sarcoma \)
[(IV)] \( Breast cancer \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
View Solution
The incidence of different malignancies varies with age. The correct matching of the age groups in List I with some of the commonly associated malignancies in List II is as follows:
< 10 years (A): Eosinophilic granuloma (II) is a Langerhans cell histiocytosis that can affect various age groups, including young children.
Teenage (B): Ewing’s Sarcoma (III) is a primary bone cancer that is more common in teenagers and young adults.
Reproductive age (C): Breast cancer (IV) is a significant malignancy in women of reproductive age, although its incidence increases with age.
> 60 years (D): Multiple Myeloma (I) is a cancer of plasma cells that typically affects older adults, with the median age at diagnosis being in the 60s.
Therefore, the correct combination is (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I). Quick Tip:Oncology: Age and Cancer Risk. Age is a significant risk factor for many types of cancer. Understanding the age-specific incidence of different malignancies is important for clinical suspicion and diagnostic workup.
The term “Tolle Causam” means :
Which of the following statement is/are true regarding manifestation of Psora Miasm?
[(A)] Aggravated in morning and from eating meat.
[(B)] Ameliorated by cold.
[(C)] Always hungry with burnt taste of mouth
[(D)] Stupid, dull senses and especially stubborn.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
The general quality or capability of the living organism of receiving impressions and the power to react to stimuli is known as
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): \quad According to Kent’s 5th observation, The amelioration comes first and the aggravation comes afterwards.
Reasons (R): \quad The inference of Kent’s 5th observation is that the remedy is superficial and could only act as palliative.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Extreme sensitivity to smell of cooking oil is an example of
Match List I with List II :
List I
(Aphorism Number)
[(A)] §23
[(B)] §26
[(C)] §73
[(D)] §233
List II
(Concept from Organon of Medicine)
[(I)] \( Typical Intermittent diseases \)
[(II)] \( Antipathic method \)
[(III)] \( Homeopathic law of nature \)
[(IV)] \( Acute miasms \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
View Solution
The correct matching of the aphorism numbers from Hahnemann's Organon of Medicine (6th edition) with their corresponding concepts is as follows:
§23 (A) discusses the concept of Antipathic method (II), which involves treating symptoms with contraries and is contrasted with the homeopathic method.
§26 (B) lays down the Homeopathic law of nature (III), "Similia similibus curentur" (like cures like), the fundamental principle of homeopathy.
§73 (C) describes the characteristics of Acute miasms (IV), which are caused by acute, self-limiting infectious diseases.
§233 (D) discusses the treatment of Typical Intermittent diseases (I), particularly malarial fevers, with cinchona bark (Quina).
Therefore, the correct combination is (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I). Quick Tip:Organon of Medicine: Key Aphorisms. Familiarity with the key aphorisms of the Organon is essential for understanding the theoretical foundations and practical application of homeopathy. Each aphorism encapsulates a vital principle or guideline for homeopathic practice.
In preface of which edition of Organon, Hahnemann used the term ‘a priori’ while referring to Theoretical Medicine?
Who amongst the following was the first English translator of fourth edition of Organon of Medicine?
According to Hahnemann, which method of medicine administration was employed by Mongrel sect?
Arrange the following concepts in the chronological order of their appearance in the aphorisms of sixth edition of Organon of Medicine, starting from lowest to highest.
[(A)] Preserver of health
[(B)] Highest ideal of cure
[(C)] Fundamental cause
[(D)] Portrait of the disease
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I \quad : Law of similar is the fundamental law in the palliation of incurable states.
Statement II \quad : Kent’s ninth observation states that prolonged aggravation and final decline of patient demands palliative treatment.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I \quad : First edition of Organon was published at Koethen.
Statement II \quad : Hahnemann’s articles on ‘Aesculapius in balance’ and ‘The Medical Observer’ are regarded as precursor of First edition of Organon.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Which of the following mind rubric is found in Boenninghausen’s Characteristics and Repertory but not found in Kent’s Repertory?
Any drug which in its natural state affects the vital energy to destructive manifestation should be proven only in :
One sided disease are :
[(A)] Disease which affect one side of the body
[(B)] Disease which belong to class of Acute individual disease
[(C)] Disease with few perceptible symptoms
[(D)] Less amenable to cure
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
First homoeopathic journal was published by :
An old man of rheumatic gout diathesis complaining of arthritic pains in joints; pains are drawing, tearing, pressing, light or superficial during warm weather; affect the bones and deeper tissues, when air is cold; pains go from left to right; bad manners, make him almost beside himself; his suffering seem intolerable. The most suitable remedy is :
Clinical Repertory by Clarke was published in the year :
Match List I with List II :
List I
Rubric
[(A)] Pulse
[(B)] Whistling
[(C)] Mania a Potu
[(D)] Contraction of muscles and tendons
List II
Chapter in Kent’s Repertory
[(I)] \( Mind \)
[(II)] \( Extremities \)
[(III)] \( Generalities \)
[(IV)] \( Larynx and Trachea \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
View Solution
To correctly match the rubrics with the chapters in Kent's Repertory:
Pulse (A) is a general physical symptom and is therefore found under the chapter Generalities (III).
Whistling (B) as a vocalization is related to the throat and breathing, and in Kent's Repertory, such symptoms are located under the chapter Larynx and Trachea (IV).
Mania a Potu (C) refers to delirium tremens or alcohol-induced mania, which is a mental state and is therefore found under the chapter Mind (I).
Contraction of muscles and tendons (D) is a physical manifestation affecting the limbs and is found under the chapter Extremities (II).
Thus, the correct matching is (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II). Quick Tip:Homeopathic Repertory: Kent's Structure. Understanding the chapter organization of Kent's Repertory is essential for efficient case analysis. General symptoms, mental symptoms, and particular physical symptoms are categorized into distinct chapters.
A man came with a complaint of Boil in Perineum. What will be the arrangement of Rubric in the Kent’s Repertory?
Given below are two statements :
Statement I \quad : Uremia and uric acid diathesis, both the rubrics are given in “Sensations and Complaints in General” chapter of BBCR Repertory
Statement II \quad : Glycosuria and milky urine, both the rubrics are given in the chapter ‘Micturition’ of Therapeutic pocket book.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
For the bad effects of abortions and miscarriages. Sensation of soreness and heaviness in pelvis; a consciousness of a womb, feels it move when she moves, it is so sore and tender
Choose the correct options :
Which of the following rubrics are given in generalities section of Kents Repertory?
[(A)] Bed sores
[(B)] Thrombosis
[(C)] Apoplexy
[(D)] Constipation amel.
[(E)] Diarrhoea in aged people
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Match List I with List II :
List I
(Rubric)
[(A)] Chordee
[(B)] Hordeola
[(C)] Hay Fever
[(D)] Torticollis
List II
(Chapter in Kent’s Repertory)
[(I)] \( Nose \)
[(II)] \( External throat \)
[(III)] \( Eye \)
[(IV)] \( Urethra \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
View Solution
To correctly match the rubrics with the chapters in Kent's Repertory:
Chordee (A) is a painful downward curvature of the penis during erection due to inflammation of the urethra, and is therefore found under the chapter Urethra (IV).
Hordeola (B) are styes, which are inflammations of the glands of the eyelid, and are found under the chapter Eye (III).
Hay Fever (C) is an allergic condition primarily affecting the nasal passages, causing symptoms like sneezing, runny nose, and congestion, and is found under the chapter Nose (I).
Torticollis (D) is a condition characterized by a twisted neck, often with the head tilted to one side, and is found under the chapter External throat (II), which in Kent's Repertory includes the neck region.
Thus, the correct matching is (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II). Quick Tip:Homeopathic Repertory: Anatomical Locations. When looking for rubrics in Kent's Repertory, it's essential to identify the primary anatomical location of the symptom to navigate to the correct chapter.
Which of the following statements are correct about Epstein Barr Virus (EBV) infections.
[(A)] It is the cause of heterophile – positive infectious mononucleosis.
[(B)] EBV spreads by contact with oral secretions.
[(C)] Humoral immunity is more important than cellular immunity in controlling EBV infections.
[(D)] Most EBV infection in infants and young children are either asymptomatic or mild.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
[(1)] \( A, B, C only \)
[(2)] \( A, C, D only \)
[(3)] \( A, B, D only \)
[(4)] \( C, D only \)
Match List I with List II with corresponding given single medicine in Kents Repertory
List I
Rubric
[(A)] Squanders money
[(B)] Benevolence
[(C)] Washing always her hands
[(D)] Power, love of
List II
Medicine in Kents Repertory
[(I)] \( Syphilinum \)
[(II)] \( Verat alb. \)
[(III)] \( Lycopodium \)
[(IV)] \( Coffea \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
View Solution
Matching the given mental rubrics with the corresponding single medicine listed in Kent's Repertory:
Squanders money (A): This rubric, indicating a wasteful and extravagant tendency with money, has Veratrum album (II) as a prominent single remedy in Kent's Repertory.
Benevolence (B): A disposition to do good and be kind is strongly associated with Coffea (IV) in Kent's Repertory, often seen in their excitable and sensitive nature.
Washing always her hands (C): This specific obsessive-compulsive behavior is a characteristic symptom strongly linked with Syphilinum (I) in the mind section of Kent's Repertory.
Power, love of (D): A strong desire for control and authority is a key mental characteristic of Lycopodium (III) as found in Kent's Repertory.
Therefore, the correct matching is (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III). Quick Tip:Homeopathic Materia Medica: Mental Symptoms in Repertory. Mental and emotional symptoms are highly valued in homeopathy for remedy selection. Kent's Repertory provides a detailed section on the mind, with many specific rubrics and characteristic remedies.
Match List I with List II :
List I
Rubric
[(A)] Hair of head falls out
[(B)] Amativeness
[(C)] Chlorosis
[(D)] Vertigo
List II
Chapter/Section in Boenninghausen’s Therapeutic Pocket Book
[(I)] \( Intellect \)
[(II)] \( Sensation \)
[(III)] \( Mind \)
[(IV)] \( Skin \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
View Solution
Matching the given rubrics with the corresponding chapter/section in Boenninghausen's Therapeutic Pocket Book (TPB):
Hair of head falls out (A) is a physical symptom related to the external covering and is found under the section Skin (IV) in Boenninghausen's TPB.
Amativeness (B) refers to sexual desire or inclination and is a mental/emotional state, thus located under the section Mind (III).
Chlorosis (C) is a historical term for a type of anemia, often associated with a greenish pallor of the skin and general weakness. In Boenninghausen's TPB, general pathological states and sensations are often found under Sensation (II) or related general chapters.
Vertigo (D) is a sensation of spinning or dizziness and is listed under the section Intellect (I) in Boenninghausen's TPB, as it is considered a subjective sensation affecting perception and orientation.
Therefore, the correct matching is (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I). Quick Tip:Homeopathic Repertory: Boenninghausen's Structure. Boenninghausen's Therapeutic Pocket Book is structured differently from Kent's Repertory, with a strong emphasis on modalities, concomitants, and a more physiological grouping of symptoms. Understanding these differences is key to effectively using this repertory.
The Rubric ‘Convulsions with Consciousness’ is mentioned in which of the following chapter of Therapeutic Pocket Book?
The Rubric ‘Excitement, Emotional’ is mentioned in which section of Therapeutic Pocket Book?
The only remedy mentioned in Boenninghausen’s Therapeutic Pocket book in ‘Aggravations from spices’ is :
In Boger Boenninghausen’s Characteristics and repertory, the rubric ‘Opisthotonus’ is mentioned in which chapter?
Match List I with List II : Rubric and Chapter of Kent's Repertory
List I
(Rubric)
[(A)] Wen behind ear
[(B)] Abscess, Parotid gland
[(C)] Hair, tangles easily
[(D)] Hair, unusual parts on
List II
(Chapter in Kent’s Repertory)
[(I)] \( Skin \)
[(II)] \( Ear \)
[(III)] \( Face \)
[(IV)] \( Head \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
View Solution
Matching the given rubrics with the corresponding chapters in Kent's Repertory:
Wen behind ear (A): A wen (cyst) located behind the ear would be found under the chapter related to the ear, which is Ear (II).
Abscess, Parotid gland (B): The parotid gland is a salivary gland located in the face, so an abscess there would be listed under the chapter Face (III).
Hair, tangles easily (C): Symptoms related to the hair on the scalp are generally found under the chapter Head (IV).
Hair, unusual parts on (D): The growth of hair on unusual parts of the body is a skin-related symptom and would be found under the chapter Skin (I).
Therefore, the correct matching is (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I). Quick Tip:Homeopathic Repertory: Anatomical Chapters. When repertorizing localized symptoms, always refer to the chapter corresponding to the affected body part in Kent's Repertory.
Fern tree pattern is present in which phase of menstrual cycle?
“Obstinate constipation for years; rectum seems tied up with strictures; when enema was used, the agony of passage was like labor” is the symptom of :
Which of the following theory is postulated for placenta praevia?
A pregnancy is called post-term pregnancy which continues for more than _____ days.
Arrange the following signs and symptoms, in increasing order of their appearance in pregnancy, starting from first to last
[(A)] Quickening
[(B)] Palmer’s sign
[(C)] Hegar’s sign
[(D)] Lightening
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Which of the following does NOT belong to the class of chronic diseases?
Rubric ‘Petit Mal’ is given in which chapter of Boericke’s Repertory of Homoeopathic Materia Medica and Repertory?
In Boenninghausen’s Therapeutic Pocket book, rubric ‘Death Apparent’ is given in which chapter?
All are factors of Ranson Scoring on admission except :
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Adrenogenital syndrome is a cause for female pseudo hermaphroditism.
Reasons (R) : It is inherited as X-linked recessive gene which causes diminished response to androgens.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Which of the following test is not suggested for ovulation?
Given below are two statements :
Statement I \quad : Delayed puberty is said to be delayed when breast tissue and/or pubic hairs have not appeared by 12 years
Statement II \quad : Puberty is said to be delayed when menarche appears as late as 16 years.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Which of the following diameters of fetal skull does not measure 9.5 cm?
Given below are two statements :
Statement I \quad : The wound will have bevelled margin, if the blade of weapon enters obliquely.
Statement II \quad : Bevelling can be produced by sharp weapons only.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I \quad : Hydrogen Sulphide interfere with cellular respiration by inhibiting the action of cytochrome oxidase.
Statement II \quad : In Hydrogen Sulphide poisoning post mortem staining is of cherry red colour.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
For gastric lavage the only absolute contraindication is corrosive poisoning except
Match List I with List II :
List I (Site of Injury)
[(A)] Blow on lateral convexity of head
[(B)] Blow over forehead
[(C)] Blow over occiput
[(D)] Blow on vertex
List II (Part affected)
[(I)] \( Sagittal sinus \)
[(II)] \( Middle meningeal artery \)
[(III)] \( Anterior ethmoidal artery \)
[(IV)] \( Transverse sigmoid sinus \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
View Solution
Matching the site of injury with the potentially affected part:
(A) Blow on lateral convexity of head: The middle meningeal artery runs beneath the temporal bone in the lateral aspect of the skull. A blow to this area is likely to damage the Middle meningeal artery (II), leading to an extradural hematoma.
(B) Blow over forehead: The anterior ethmoidal artery is located in the anterior cranial fossa, near the forehead. A fracture in this region can injure the Anterior ethmoidal artery (III).
(C) Blow over occiput: The transverse and sigmoid sinuses are located in the posterior cranial fossa, near the occiput. A blow to the occiput can potentially damage the Transverse sigmoid sinus (IV).
(D) Blow on vertex: The superior sagittal sinus runs along the midline at the vertex of the skull. A blow to the top of the head can injure the Sagittal sinus (I).
Therefore, the correct matching is (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I). Quick Tip:Forensic Medicine: Head Injuries. Understanding the anatomy of the skull and the location of major blood vessels and sinuses is crucial in forensic analysis of head injuries to predict potential complications.
All the statements about healthy articular cartilage are correct except:
Which of the following is the spurt muscle?
“Adapted to persons with dark hair and rigid fibre; weakly, psoric with excessively yellow, sallow complexion; subject to affections of respiratory and urinary tracts” is the symptom of :
Paracentesis thoracis is usually done in which of the following intercostal space in midaxillary line?
Match List I with List II :
List I
[(A)] Anterior Mediastinum
[(B)] Middle Mediastinum
[(C)] Posterior Mediastinum
[(D)] Superior Mediastinum
List II
[(I)] \( Azygos Vein \)
[(II)] \( Pulmonary Trunk \)
[(III)] \( Sternopericardial Ligaments \)
[(IV)] \( Left Brachiocephalic Vein \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
View Solution
Matching the mediastinal compartments with their key contents:
(A) Anterior Mediastinum: Primarily contains the thymus gland (in children), fat, lymph nodes, and the sternopericardial ligaments (III) which attach the pericardium to the sternum.
(B) Middle Mediastinum: Contains the heart, pericardium, phrenic nerves, and the roots of the great vessels, including the pulmonary trunk (II).
(C) Posterior Mediastinum: Located behind the heart, it contains the esophagus, trachea, azygos and hemiazygos veins, thoracic duct, sympathetic trunks, and the azygos vein (I) is a prominent structure here.
(D) Superior Mediastinum: Situated above the heart, it contains the thymus, trachea, esophagus, aortic arch and its branches (including the left brachiocephalic vein forming from the union of the left internal jugular and subclavian veins), phrenic and vagus nerves, and the left brachiocephalic vein (IV) passes through this compartment.
Therefore, the correct matching is (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV). Quick Tip:Anatomy: Mediastinum.Understanding the subdivisions of the mediastinum and their contents is crucial for interpreting medical imaging and understanding the spread of diseases within the thorax.
Nerve supply of gluteus maximus muscle is :
Place the given stages of phagocytosis in the correct order of occurrence.
[(A)] Formation of Phagolysosome
[(B)] Adherence to Microbe
[(C)] Destruction of Microbe
[(D)] Ingestion to form a phagosome
[(E)] Chemotactic attraction of phagocyte
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Which of the following are true?
[(A)] The sites of olfactory transduction are the olfactory hairs
[(B)] The olfactory bulbs transmit impulses to the temporal lobe of the cerebral cortex
[(C)] The axons of olfactory receptors pass through the olfactory foramina in the cribriform plate of ethmoid bone
[(D)] The olfactory nerves are bundles of axons that terminate in the olfactory tracts
[(E)] Within the olfactory bulbs the first order neurones synapses with the second order neurones
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Water soluble hormones acts on its target cell through second messenger system.
Reasons (R) : The hormone receptor complex on the cell membrane activates G proteins thereby activating adenylate cyclase and catalyzing conversion of ATP to cAMP which activates protein kinases.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Enzyme secreted by the kidneys that is involved in the control of blood pressure is :
Ependymal cells are the cells :
“Asthma worse in open air and sitting up and better by lying down and keeping arms stretched far apart” is a feature of :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I \quad : Respiratory Acidosis is caused by retention of carbon dioxide. The \(PaCO_2\) and \(H^+\) rise.
Statement II \quad : In Respiratory alkalosis there is the fall in \(PaCO_2\) and \(H^+\).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Pseudogout arthritis is caused by :
Which of the following investigations will help to differentiate esophageal achalasia from benign mechanical strictures of esophagogastric junction?
Which are the non-articular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis?
[(A)] Pericarditis
[(B)] Sjogren's syndrome
[(C)] Cervical myelopathy
[(D)] Z-deformity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is an assessment of :
Which of the following statements are true for Ankylosing spondylitis?
[(A)] Presence of enthesitis in axial joints
[(B)] Sacroiliitis is an early manifestation
[(C)] Rheumatoid factor (RF), is found in majority of patients
[(D)] X-ray of lumbar spine reveal squaring of vertebral bodies
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Which of the following is the most common inherited haemolytic anaemia caused by red cell membrane defect?
Match List I with List II :
List I (Sign)
[(A)] Murphy's
[(B)] Rovsing's
[(C)] Iliopsoas
[(D)] Grey Turner's and Cullen's
List II (Disease Association)
[(I)] \( Iliopsoas Abscess, Perinephric Abscess \)
[(II)] \( Acute Cholecystitis \)
[(III)] \( Acute Appendicitis \)
[(IV)] \( Haemorrhagic pancreatitis, aortic rupture and ruptured ectopic pregnancy \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
View Solution
Matching the clinical signs with their associated diseases:
(A) Murphy's sign: This sign is elicited during palpation of the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. Pain on inspiration when the examiner's fingers are under the right costal margin suggests inflammation of the gallbladder, commonly seen in Acute Cholecystitis (II).
(B) Rovsing's sign: This sign is elicited by deep palpation in the left lower quadrant of the abdomen, which causes pain in the right lower quadrant. It is indicative of peritoneal irritation in Acute Appendicitis (III).
(C) Iliopsoas sign: This sign is elicited by extending the thigh of a patient lying on their side against resistance or by passively extending the thigh of a supine patient. Pain indicates irritation of the iliopsoas muscle, which can occur in conditions such as Iliopsoas Abscess or Perinephric Abscess (I) where the inflamed structures are adjacent to the muscle.
(D) Grey Turner's and Cullen's signs: These are signs of retroperitoneal haemorrhage. Grey Turner's sign refers to ecchymosis (bruising) of the flanks, while Cullen's sign refers to ecchymosis around the umbilicus. These can be seen in conditions like Haemorrhagic pancreatitis, aortic rupture, and ruptured ectopic pregnancy (IV).
Therefore, the correct matching is (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV). Quick Tip:Clinical Examination: Abdominal Signs. Recognizing these classic abdominal signs and their associations is crucial for the clinical diagnosis of various abdominal pathologies.
Which of the following statements are true for multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) syndromes?
[(A)] Each type of MEN syndrome is inherited as autosomal recessive.
[(B)] MEN type I is characterized by triad of tumors involving parathyroids, pancreatic islets and anterior pituitary
[(C)] Majority of patients with MEN type I have hypercalcemia
[(D)] Medullary thyroid carcinoma is the most common feature of MEN type 2
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
A middle aged male presented with sub acute paresthesias in hands and feet, loss of vibration and position sense and a progressive spastic and ataxic weakness. Examination revealed loss of reflexes along with presence of Babinski sign. Investigation revealed presence of macrocytic RBCs and elevated serum homocystine levels. The most likely diagnosis is
Wasting of the thenar eminence and positive tinel's sign are produced due to compression of :
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Statement I \quad : Hypoparathyroidism presents as neuromuscular irritability and neuropsychiatric manifestations. Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign are found in hypocalcemia.
Statement II \quad : Chvostek’s sign (gentle tapping over the trigeminal nerve causes twitching of the ipsilateral facial muscles) and Trousseau’s sign (inflation of the sphygmomanometer cuff above systolic pressure for 5 minutes induces tetanic spasm of the fingers and wrist).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : The principle pathological abnormality in Klinefelter syndrome is dysgenesis of the seminiferous tubules.
Reasons (R) : This is evident from adulthood and progress with age. By adolescence, hyalinization and fibrosis are present within seminiferous tubules and Leydig cell function is impaired, resulting in hypogonadism.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Lhermitte's symptom is found in :
Barrett's oesophagus is characterised by :
The main toxic metabolite of alcohol which is responsible for alcohol related injury to different organs is :
Which of the following statements are correct about malignant tumor cells?
[(A)] Most malignant tumor cells show DNA aneuploidy
[(B)] The N : C ratio is decreased from 1 : 1 to 1 : 5
[(C)] Nuclear chromatin is increased and coarsely clumped
[(D)] Malignant cells have prominent nucleoli in the nucleus.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Match List I with List II :
List I
[(A)] Skeletal muscle
[(B)] Smooth muscle
[(C)] Totipotent cells
[(D)] Adipose tissue
List II
[(I)] \( Lipoma \)
[(II)] \( Teratoma \)
[(III)] \( Leiomyoma \)
[(IV)] Rhabdomyoma
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
View Solution
Matching the tissue types with their corresponding benign tumors:
(A) Skeletal muscle: Benign tumors of skeletal muscle are called rhabdomyomas (IV).
(B) Smooth muscle: Benign tumors of smooth muscle are called leiomyomas (III). These are commonly found in the uterus (fibroids).
(C) Totipotent cells: Totipotent cells, such as the zygote, have the ability to differentiate into all cell types of an organism, including extraembryonic tissues. Tumors arising from totipotent cells that contain tissues derived from all three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm) are called teratomas (II).
(D) Adipose tissue: Benign tumors of adipose tissue (fat) are called lipomas (I).
Therefore, the correct matching is (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I). Quick Tip: \textbf{Pathology: Benign Tumors.} Remember the nomenclature for benign tumors, which typically involves adding the suffix "-oma" to the cell type of origin (e.g., lipoma from fat cells, leiomyoma from smooth muscle). Teratomas are unique due to their origin from totipotent cells and their diverse tissue composition.
Struvite stones are formed in kidneys as a result of which of the following?
In "Lathyrism" the toxin present in the lathyrus seeds has been identified as :
Recurrent episodes of macroscopic hematuria during or immediately following an upper respiratory infection in a feature of:
In many of the developing countries, the most common cause of deaths among women of reproductive age is :
"Norplant" a subdermal implant consist of 6 silastic capsules containing :
The \(9^{th}\) target of sustainable development goal 3 is :
Match List I with List II :
List I
[(A)] Metallic Body Implants
[(B)] Intravenous Tubes and Sets, Catheters, Urine bags
[(C)] Expired or discarded antibiotics, cytotoxic drugs
[(D)] Wastes like Blood bags laboratory cultures
List II
[(I)] \( Yellow colored non chlorinated plastic bags \)
[(II)] \( Cardboard boxes with blue coloured marking \)
[(III)] \( Red colored non chlorinated plastic bags \)
[(IV)] \( Autoclave safe plastic bags \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
View Solution
Matching the medical waste categories with the appropriate color-coded containers for their disposal according to biomedical waste management guidelines:
(A) Metallic Body Implants: These are typically collected in cardboard boxes with blue coloured marking (II).
(B) Intravenous Tubes and Sets, Catheters, Urine bags: These are usually collected in autoclave safe plastic bags (IV) for sterilization and further disposal.
(C) Expired or discarded antibiotics, cytotoxic drugs: These fall under chemical waste and are typically collected in yellow colored non chlorinated plastic bags (I).
(D) Wastes like Blood bags laboratory cultures: These are infectious wastes and are generally collected in red colored non chlorinated plastic bags (III) for autoclaving or incineration.
Therefore, the correct matching is (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III). Quick Tip:Public Health: Biomedical Waste Management. Understanding the color-coding system for biomedical waste disposal is crucial for preventing infections and ensuring environmental safety in healthcare settings. Each color represents a specific category of waste and the required disposal method.
Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Behaviour Change Communication (BCC) is a key supportive strategy for malaria prevention and treatment under NVBDCP (National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme).
Reasons (R) : People should be motivated to remain polite, earn more and spend a lot on medicines to keep themselves healthy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Find the correct sequence :
[(A)] \( River Water \)
[(B)] \( Flocculation Chamber \)
[(C)] \( Sedimentation Tank \)
[(D)] \( Filters \)
[(E)] \( Clear water storage \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : “Vandemataram Scheme” is a voluntary scheme where any obstetric and gynaecology specialist, maternity home, nursing home, lady doctor/MBBS doctor can volunteer themselves for providing safe motherhood services.
Statement II : ‘ASHA incentive of Rs. 200 in urban areas include Rs. 100 for ANC component and Rs 100 for accompanying pregnant woman for institutional delivery.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The classic triad of congenital defects in “Congenital Rubella Syndrome” are deafness, cardiac malformations and cataracts.
Statement II : The Rubella vaccine should be given to every pregnant woman during early pregnancy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Which of the following is not a symptom of Benzoic acid?
A patient was sitting up in bed, unable to lie down, as she was worse from lying down; face purplish and puffed, her eyes engorged, eyelids bloated, sat perfectly still with pain in the head as a surging sensation which came up the back of neck and head and then over the head. What is the probable remedy?
Choose the correct option with respect to persons with light hair and skin; irritable, quarrelsome disposition; easily offended at trifles; vexed at everything. Skin of hands rough, cracked; tips of fingers rough, cracked, fissured, every winter; tenderness of the feet which are bathed in foul-smelling sweat.
An old man complaining of chronic diarrhoea and shortness of breath on going upstairs reported in OPD. On examination, his tongue is clean, red and wet with central furrows with bloody saliva and multiple ulcers on soft palate. The most suitable remedy is :
According to Dr. Kent the patient of this drug is hard to study and the remedy itself is a hard one to study. The patient is whimsical, irascible, irritable, to the very highest degree, quarrels with his family and with his bread and butter. He is never at peace, is full of imaginations and fear. The remedy is :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I \quad : Rapid change of symptoms - pain changes in regard to place and character is a feature of Berberis Vulgaris.
Statement II \quad : Berberis vulg. is indicated in complaints of drunkards after abstaining.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Sore throats and cough apt to begin and end with menstruation is a keynote features of :
Great sensitiveness to open air, putting the hand from under the bed cover brings on cough is a keynote of :
Given below are two statements :
Statement I \quad : Carcinosin is indicated in post operative gas pains, no relief from passing it.
Statement II \quad : Children have great fear, are sensitive to reprimands but sympathetic to others is a characteristic feature of Carcinosin.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
Match List I with List II :
List I
[(A)] Tall thin irritable persons suffering from abuse of mercury
[(B)] Old people, weak vision, corpulent, tired of life
[(C)] Adapted to light complexion (III) Aurum met blondes, great emaciation of face, hands, legs and feet or single parts
[(D)] "The Aconite of chronic diseases"
List II
[(I)] \( Alumina \)
[(II)] \( Selenium \)
[(III)] \( Aurum met \)
[(IV)] \( Arg. met \)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
View Solution
Let's match the descriptions in List I with the corresponding homeopathic remedies in List II:
(A) Tall thin irritable persons suffering from abuse of mercury: This description is characteristic of Argentum metallicum (Arg. met) (IV). Mercury abuse can lead to various nervous and physical symptoms, and *Arg. met* is known for its affinity to individuals with a tall, thin physique and irritable temperament, often with symptoms related to metallic poisoning.
(B) Old people, weak vision, corpulent, tired of life: This picture often fits Selenium (II). *Selenium* is known for its use in elderly individuals with weakness, failing vision, and a feeling of being worn out or tired of life. Corpulence can also be a feature.
(C) Adapted to light complexion blondes, great emaciation of face, hands, legs and feet or single parts: This description aligns with Aurum metallicum (Aurum met) (III). While *Aurum met* is more typically associated with serious mental-emotional states, it can also present with marked emaciation in specific areas and is sometimes indicated in individuals with a lighter complexion.
(D) "The Aconite of chronic diseases": This epithet is often attributed to Alumina (I). *Alumina* has a wide range of chronic symptoms affecting various systems and can act with a suddenness in its sphere, similar to how *Aconite* acts in acute conditions.
Therefore, the correct matching is (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I). Quick Tip:Homeopathy: Remedy Typology. Understanding the general constitutional types and key characteristics associated with different homeopathic remedies is essential for holistic prescribing. These descriptions provide a glimpse into the broader symptom pictures of these remedies.
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