CG Pre BEd 2024 Question Paper (Available) with Answer Key PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Educational Content Expert | Updated on - May 22, 2025

CG Pre BEd 2024 Question paper is available for download here. Chhattisgarh Professional Examination Board (CPEB) conducted CG Pre BEd exam on June 30, 2024. CG Pre BEd question paper consists a total of 100 questions divided into 5 sections.

CG Pre BEd 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

CG Pre B.Ed 2024 Session 1 Question Paper with Answer Key download iconDownload Check Solutions
CG Pre Bed 2024 Question Paper  With Solutions

General Mental Eligibility

Question 1:

If the net was folded into a cube, which of the given shapes would it look like?






Correct Answer: (C) View Solution

Question 2:




If a mirror is placed vertically next to the picture given above at the dotted line, then the image of the picture on the left looks like:

Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Question 3:




Which cube cannot be made based on the unfolded cube shown below?

Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Question 4:

Which figure fits the given object to make a cube?





Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Question 5:

Complete the series: \[ 5760, \, 2880, \, 960, \, 240, \, 48, \, ? \]

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 17
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 16
Correct Answer: (C) 12
View Solution

Question 6:

Seven-year-old boy Nehan has been asking his parents for a dog for the last two years. His parents have told him an apartment is not the right place to keep a pet dog, but they have permitted him to have a bird. Nehan has not yet decided what kind of bird he wants. Find the statement that must be true according to the given information.

  • (A) Nehan does not like birds.
  • (B) Nehan’s parents do not like dogs.
  • (C) Nehan and his parents stay in an apartment.
  • (D) Nehan and his parents decided to move.
Correct Answer: (C) Nehan and his parents stay in an apartment.
View Solution

Question 7:

If \( \times \) means \( \div \), \( \div \) means \( + \), \( + \) means \( - \), and \( - \) means \( \times \), then calculate: \[ 2 \, \, 50 \, \, 40 \, \, 10 \, \, 96 \, ? \, - \, + \, \times \, \div \]

  • (1) \( 104 \)
  • (2) \( 98 \)
  • (3) \( 192 \)
  • (4) \( 102 \)
Correct Answer: (2) 98
View Solution

Question 8:

BRUSH UBRHS BUSRH SBUHR BSRUH
Which of the following options comes next in the above sequence?

  • (A) SBHRU
  • (B) RBSHU
  • (C) RBHUS
  • (D) URBSH
Correct Answer: (A) SBHRU
View Solution

Question 9:




Which of the following options comes next in the above sequence?

Correct Answer: A. \( \triangle \, S \, \square \)
View Solution

Question 10:

Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way, and one is different. Pick the odd one out.

  • (A) Pentagon
  • (B) Hexagon
  • (C) Heptagon
  • (D) Hendecagon
Correct Answer: (D) Hendecagon
View Solution

Question 11:

Look at this series: 22, 21, 23, 22, 24, 23, ….. What number should come next?

  • (1) \( 22 \)
  • (2) \( 24 \)
  • (3) \( 21 \)
  • (4) \( 25 \)
Correct Answer: (2) 24
View Solution

Question 12:

Three of the following four words are alike in a certain way, and one is different. Pick the odd one out.

  • (1) Ohm
  • (2) Ampere
  • (3) Volts
  • (4) Kelvin
Correct Answer: (4) Kelvin
View Solution

Question 13:

Select the alternative which represents three out of the five alternative figures which, when fitted into each other, would form a complete square.


Correct Answer: A. 1 3 4
View Solution

Question 14:




Which of the following options comes next in the above sequence?

Correct Answer: B. \( \circ \, z \, \square \, \star \)
View Solution

Question 15:

Select a figure amongst the Answer Figures, which will continue the same series established by the five Problem Figures.





Correct Answer: C. 4
View Solution

Question 16:

In a certain code, ‘WRONG’ is written as ‘FMNQV’. How is ‘RIGHT’ written in that code?

  • (1) QHFGS
  • (2) SJHIU
  • (3) UIHJS
  • (4) SGFHQ
Correct Answer: (2) SJHIU
View Solution

Question 17:

A person walked 5 meters towards the north, took a left turn and walked for 10 meters. He then took a right turn and walked for 20 meters, and again took a right turn and walked 10 meters. How far is he from the starting point?

  • (1) \( 20 \) meters
  • (2) \( 25 \) meters
  • (3) \( 30 \) meters
  • (4) \( 45 \) meters
Correct Answer: (2) 25 meters
View Solution

Question 18:

What should come next in the following series?
6, 8, 8, 1, 2, 6, 8, 6, 1, 2, 3, 6, 8, 8, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, ?

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 8
Correct Answer: (B) 1
View Solution

Question 19:

Pointing to a person, Rohit said, ‘He is the younger of the two brothers of the daughter of my father’s wife.’ How is the person related to Rohit?

  • (A) Nephew
  • (B) Brother
  • (C) Son
  • (D) Uncle
Correct Answer: (A) Nephew
View Solution

Question 20:

Arun is taller than Bhanu and Bhanu is taller than Charan but shorter than Dilip. Who is the tallest among them?

  • (A) Arun
  • (B) Dilip
  • (C) Arun or Dilip
  • (D) Bhanu
Correct Answer: (B) Dilip
View Solution

Question 21:

Satish read a book on Sunday. Sudha read that book one day before Anil but four days after Satish. On which day did Anil read the book?

  • (1) Friday
  • (2) Saturday
  • (3) Thursday
  • (4) Tuesday
Correct Answer: (1) Friday
View Solution

Question 22:

In a class of 10 girls and 20 boys, Jaya’s rank is ‘4’ among the girls and ‘18’ in the class. What is Jaya’s rank among boys in the class?

  • (1) 14
  • (2) 15
  • (3) 16
  • (4) It cannot be determined
Correct Answer: (4) It cannot be determined
View Solution

Question 23:

In a row of girls, Manasa is eighth from the left and Indu is seventeenth from the right. If they interchange their positions, Manasa becomes fourteenth from the left. How many girls are there in the row?

  • (1) 30
  • (2) 25
  • (3) 22
  • (4) 31
Correct Answer: (4) 31
View Solution

Question 24:

Given the following relations:

'P Q' \( \times \) means 'P is mother of Q',

'P Q' \( \div \) means 'P is sister of Q',

'P Q' \( + \) means 'P is brother of Q',

'P Q' \( - \) means 'P is father of Q'.

Find how 'K' is related to 'D' in the expression \( D \, F \, T \, K \div - + \)?

  • (1) Nephew or Niece
  • (2) Nephew
  • (3) Niece
  • (4) No relation can be established
Correct Answer: (1) Nephew or Niece
View Solution

Question 25:

In a certain code, ‘123’ means ‘I am going’, ‘345’ means ‘I was eating’ and ‘146’ means ‘She was going’. Which of the following numerals stands for ‘eating’?

  • (1) 1
  • (2) 2
  • (3) 5
  • (4) 3
Correct Answer: (3) 5
View Solution

Question 26:

Four of the following five numbers belong to one group in a certain way and the other is different. What is that different number?
84, 76, 56, 94, 24

  • (A) 84
  • (B) 56
  • (C) 94
  • (D) 76
Correct Answer: (C) 94
View Solution

Question 27:

Some birds are animals. All animals are rivers. Some rivers are lions.

Conclusions:
(I) Some lions are animals
(II) Some rivers are birds
(III) No animal is a lion

Which conclusions logically follow?

  • (A) Only (II) follows
  • (B) Only either (I) or (III) follows
  • (C) Only (II) and (III) follow
  • (D) (II) and either (I) or (III) follow
Correct Answer: (D) (II) and either (I) or (III) follow
View Solution

Question 28:

Each number’s first and second digits are interchanged. After rearranging in descending order, which number will be second?
385, 472, 961, 528, 284

  • (A) 284
  • (B) 385
  • (C) 472
  • (D) 528
Correct Answer: (A) 284
View Solution

Question 29:

In a row of 40 children facing North, Satish is eighth to the right of Ajay. If Ajay is 18th from the right end of the row, how far is Satish from the left end?

  • (A) 32
  • (B) 31
  • (C) 26
  • (D) 10
Correct Answer: (B) 31
View Solution

Question 30:

Gopal remembers that Rajesh’s birthday is after the 4th of December but before the 7th of December. Rajesh’s sister says his birthday is two days before or after hers (8th December). When is Rajesh’s birthday?

  • (A) 5th December
  • (B) 4th December
  • (C) 7th December
  • (D) 6th December
Correct Answer: (D) 6th December
View Solution

General Knowledge

Question 31:

Match the following newspapers with their editors or founders:

Newspapers:
(a) Miraat-ul Akhbar
(b) Comrade
(c) Al-Hilal
(d) Yugantar

Editors/Founders:
(I) Moulana Abul Kalam Azad
(II) Varindra Kumar Ghosh
(III) Mohammad Ali
(IV) Raja Rammohan Roy

  • (A) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
  • (B) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
  • (C) a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III
  • (D) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
Correct Answer: (B) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
View Solution

Question 32:

In which year did Bal Gangadhar Tilak go to jail for the crime of treason?

  • (A) 1897
  • (B) 1900
  • (C) 1901
  • (D) 1906
Correct Answer: (A) 1897
View Solution

Question 33:

Which statement is wrong regarding Indian Monsoon?

  • (A) Monsoon winds are permanent as trade winds.
  • (B) Monsoon distributes into two branches after entering in Southern side of India in first week of June.
  • (C) Arabian Sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch both confluences in the North West Part of Ganga plains.
  • (D) Rainfall in Delhi occurs from Bay of Bengal branch.
Correct Answer: (D) Rainfall in Delhi occurs from Bay of Bengal branch.
View Solution

Question 34:

Declared a national waterway by the government of India.

(I) Ganga waterway between Haldia and Allahabad.
(II) Western Coastal Canal in Kerala (Kottapuram to Kollam).
(III) Brahmaputra waterway between Sadiya and Dhubri.

  • (A) Only (I) is correct
  • (B) Only (III) is correct
  • (C) (I) and (III) are correct
  • (D) All are correct
Correct Answer: (D) All are correct
View Solution

Question 35:

Gas pipeline expansion is-

(I) Salaya to Jalandhar
(II) Hazira to Jagdishpur
(III) Vadodara to Siliguri
(IV) Barauni to Haldia

  • (A) (I), (II), (III) are correct
  • (B) (I), (II), (IV) are correct
  • (C) (I), (III), (IV) are correct
  • (D) (II), (III), (IV) are correct
Correct Answer: (B) (I), (II), (IV) are correct
View Solution

Question 36:

Karewa is-
(I) Deposit of thick layer of moraine consisting of clay and other substances.
(II) Famous for Saffron cultivation.
(III) A clay-like brown deposit formed by the partial decomposition of plant matter in swamps and subsequent wet acidic conditions.

  • (A) Only (I) is correct
  • (B) Only (II) is correct
  • (C) (I) and (III) are correct
  • (D) All are correct
Correct Answer: (B) Only (II) is correct
View Solution

Question 37:

Consider the following statements-
(I) Khadar (Old) and Bangar (New) are alluvial soil.
(II) Regur soil is suitable for cotton cultivation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (A) Only (I) is correct
  • (B) Only (II) is correct
  • (C) Both (I) and (II) are correct
  • (D) (I) and (II) both wrong
Correct Answer: (C) Both (I) and (II) are correct
View Solution

Question 38:

Which of the following is an institutional source of rural credit?

  • (A) Regional Rural Banks
  • (B) Landlords
  • (C) Traders
  • (D) Money lenders
Correct Answer: (A) Regional Rural Banks
View Solution

Question 39:

The main policy measures in the agriculture sector were adopted in the mid-1960’s. These include-
(a) Input subsidies
(b) Minimum support price
(c) Public storage
(d) Trade restriction measures

  • (A) (a), (b) and (c)
  • (B) Only (a)
  • (C) Both (a) and (c)
  • (D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (D) All of the above
View Solution

Question 40:

Match the List - A with List - B:


  • (A) a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III
  • (B) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
  • (C) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II
  • (D) a-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III
Correct Answer: (B) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II
View Solution

Question 41:

The audible range of sound for an average human being is in the frequency range of:

  • (A) \(20 \, Hz - 20 \, kHz\)
  • (B) \(10 \, Hz - 50 \, kHz\)
  • (C) \(5 \, Hz - 10 \, kHz\)
  • (D) \(40 \, Hz - 40 \, kHz\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(20 \, \text{Hz} - 20 \, \text{kHz}\)
View Solution

Question 42:

Choose the right option.

Assertion (A): Benign Tumors are called neoplastic cells.
Reason (R): Malignant Tumor spreads to other organs of the body.

  • (A) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (B) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
View Solution

Question 43:

The body responsible for planning, implementation, and evaluation of educational programmes of school education and teacher education at the State Level is:

  • (A) N.C.E.R.T
  • (B) S.C.E.R.T
  • (C) D.I.E.T
  • (D) C.B.S.E
Correct Answer: (B) S.C.E.R.T
View Solution

Question 44:

What is the objective of the “National Literacy Mission (NLM)” set up on 5th May 1988?

  • (A) To restructure the educational organisations for better implementation of adult education policies.
  • (B) To implement the policy of adult education for all in a new spirit.
  • (C) To sensitize people about equity and equality issues.
  • (D) Impart functional literacy to 80 million illiterate persons in 15-35 age group.
Correct Answer: (D) Impart functional literacy to 80 million illiterate persons in 15-35 age group.
View Solution

Question 45:

In the context of District Primary Education Programme (DPEP) which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

(I) Improving school effectiveness.
(II) Strengthening the alternatives to schooling, particularly the nonformal education system.

  • (A) Only (I)
  • (B) Only (II)
  • (C) Both (I) and (II)
  • (D) Neither (I) nor (II)
Correct Answer: (C) Both (I) and (II)
View Solution

Question 46:

Which Commission of Education in India expressed the opinion that, the tasks before agricultural development are, therefore, clear. We must at least attempt to double the production of food in the next 15 years and maintain an adequate growth thereafter?

  • (1) Kothari Commission (Education Commission) (1964-66)
  • (2) Mudaliar Commission (Secondary Education Commission) (1952-53)
  • (3) Radha Krishnan Commission (University Education Commission) (1948-49)
  • (4) National Knowledge Commission (2006-09)
Correct Answer: (1) Kothari Commission (Education Commission) (1964-66)
View Solution

Question 47:

Which of the following is the correct option in the context of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act 2009?

  • (1) For class 1 to 5 - 200 working days and 800 instructional hours in an academic year. For class 6 to 8 - 220 working days and 1000 instructional hours in an academic year.
  • (2) For class 1 to 5 - 180 working days and 800 instructional hours in an academic year. For class 6 to 8 - 180 working days and 720 instructional hours in an academic year.
  • (3) For class 1 to 5 - 200 working days and 1000 instructional hours in an academic year. For class 6 to 8 - 220 working days and 1100 instructional hours in an academic year.
  • (4) For class 1 to 5 - 200 working days and 1200 instructional hours in an academic year. For class 6 to 8 - 220 working days and 1320 instructional hours in an academic year.
Correct Answer: (1) For class 1 to 5 - 200 working days and 800 instructional hours; For class 6 to 8 - 220 working days and 1000 instructional hours.
View Solution

Question 48:

Which of the following expenses shall be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India?

  • (1) Salary of Judges of Supreme Court
  • (2) Salary of Officers and Servants of Supreme Court
  • (3) Administrative Expenses of Supreme Court
  • (4) Maintenance of Building of Court
Correct Answer: (3) (I), (II), and (III)
View Solution

Question 49:

Consider the following Statements-

(I) The judges of Supreme Court can be eligible for further office under any government after he has ceased to hold his office.
(II) The Comptroller and Auditor General is not eligible for further office under any Government after he has ceased to hold his office.

  • (1) (I) is correct
  • (2) (II) is correct
  • (3) (I) \& (II) both are correct
  • (4) (I) \& (II) both are wrong
Correct Answer: (2) (II) is correct
View Solution

Question 50:

What are the similarities between a money bill and a finance bill?

  • (1) Both are presigned by the President.
  • (2) Both can be introduced in Lok Sabha only.
  • (3) Rajya Sabha can hold 14 days only.
  • (4) President can’t refuse to assent.
Correct Answer: (3) (I), (II), and (III)
View Solution

Educational Interest

Question 51:

According to Fleming’s VARK model of learning, four (04) types of learning styles are:

  • (A) Visible, Analytical, Reader and Knowledgeable Kinesthetic
  • (B) Visual, Auditory, Reading/Writing Preference and Kinesthetic
  • (C) Visible, Aware, Reader and Knowledgeable
  • (D) Visual, Assertive, Reasonable and Kinesthetic
Correct Answer: (B) Visual, Auditory, Reading/Writing Preference and Kinesthetic
View Solution

Question 52:

Educational Psychology helps a teacher in:

  • (A) Understanding self
  • (B) Understanding child
  • (C) Understanding society
  • (D) Entire Educational processes
Correct Answer: (D) Entire Educational processes
View Solution

Question 53:

Assertion (A): In the constructivist approach, learners’ social and cultural background significantly impact their ideas.

Reason (R): Constructivism emphasizes that knowledge is actively constructed by the learner through interaction, perception, and experience, not merely imposed by teachers.

  • (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
  • (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
  • (C) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
  • (D) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.
Correct Answer: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
View Solution

Question 54:

What is the primary objective of formative assessment?

  • (A) To assign final grades to students.
  • (B) To measure student learning at the end of a unit.
  • (C) To provide ongoing feedback to improve student learning.
  • (D) To compare students' performance against standardized benchmarks.
Correct Answer: (C) To provide ongoing feedback to improve student learning.
View Solution

Question 55:

Match each stage of Kolb learning cycle with its descriptions.

Column – I
(I) Concrete Experience
(II) Reflective Observation
(III) Abstract Conceptualization
(IV) Active Experimentation

Column – II
(a) Engaging in hands-on experiences
(b) Workable hypothesis developed are put to test
(c) Arriving at the abstract conceptualization and developing working hypothesis.
(d) Reflecting on experiences from different perspectives

  • (A) I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
  • (B) I-a, II-d, III-b, IV-c
  • (C) I-a, II-d, III-c, IV-b
  • (D) I-d, II-a, III-c, IV-b
Correct Answer: (B) I-a, II-d, III-b, IV-c
View Solution

Question 56:

Which of the following statement is not correct in reference to Art Integrated Learning (AIL)?

  • (1) Art Integrated Learning (AIL) is a cross-curricular pedagogical approach.
  • (2) Art Integrated learning and Art Education are different concepts.
  • (3) Subjects like Science and Maths can also be taught through AIL.
  • (4) For using AIL in classroom, a teacher needs special training in Art Education.
Correct Answer: (4) For using AIL in classroom, a teacher needs special training in Art Education.
View Solution

Question 57:

Which of the following statement is not correct to facilitate learning for learners at different pace?

  • (1) Presenting a lot of concepts at a time
  • (2) Encouraging learners to give examples based on their own experiences and observations.
  • (3) Analyzing the activity / task before assigning to learners in terms of time required to complete the task and plan accordingly.
  • (4) Designing some additional activities / exercises for learners at comparatively slow pace.
Correct Answer: (1) Presenting a lot of concepts at a time
View Solution

Question 58:

Idea of collaborative learning has developed on the basis of concept of ‘Zone of Proximal Development’ propounded by----.

  • (1) Jean Piaget
  • (2) B. F. Skinner
  • (3) Lev Vygotsky
  • (4) Noam Chomsky
Correct Answer: (3) Lev Vygotsky
View Solution

Question 59:

Which of the following best describes the concept of scaffolding in teaching learning?

  • (1) Providing students with all the answers to guide them through a task.
  • (2) Offering minimal support to students to encourage independent learning.
  • (3) Providing temporary support and guidance to help students master a new concept or skill.
  • (4) Allowing students to struggle without intervention to build resilience.
Correct Answer: (3) Providing temporary support and guidance to help students master a new concept or skill.
View Solution

Question 60:

Arrange the following hierarchy of human needs in the order they are typically fulfilled (according to Maslow’s hierarchy) from the most basic to the highest level of fulfilment.

(I) Seeking fulfilment and personal growth.
(II) Having a stable job and feeling secured.
(III) Feeling respected and achieving recognition.
(IV) Meeting basic requirement for survival.
(V) Forming close relationships and feeling a sense of connection.

  • (1) (IV), (II), (V), (III), (I)
  • (2) (I), (II), (III), (IV), (V)
  • (3) (IV), (V), (II), (III), (I)
  • (4) (II), (V), (III), (IV), (I)
Correct Answer: (1) (IV), (II), (V), (III), (I)
View Solution

Question 61:

Which of the following statements best captures the essence of teaching as an art?

  • (A) Teaching involves systematic planning and execution of lessons.
  • (B) Teaching is based on scientific inquiry and logical sequencing of content.
  • (C) Teaching relies solely on following strict routines and regimes to achieve desired outcomes.
  • (D) Teaching can be performed with skills, grace and creativity incorporating aesthetics into learning process.
Correct Answer: (D) Teaching can be performed with skills, grace and creativity incorporating aesthetics into learning process.
View Solution

Question 62:

Which of the following is not one of the maxims of teaching for teaching at school level?

  • (A) Simple to complex
  • (B) Abstract to concrete
  • (C) Known to unknown
  • (D) Direct to indirect
Correct Answer: (D) Direct to indirect
View Solution

Question 63:

Which of the following strategies is most effective in promoting an inclusive environment?

  • (A) Focusing solely on academic performance.
  • (B) Encouraging collaboration and peer support among students.
  • (C) Providing the same teaching methods for all students.
  • (D) Isolating students with special needs during instructional time.
Correct Answer: (B) Encouraging collaboration and peer support among students.
View Solution

Question 64:

Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of intrinsically motivated children?

  • (A) They find pleasure in engaging with their task.
  • (B) They demonstrate high level of enthusiasm and energy during their activities.
  • (C) They always succeed.
  • (D) They like challenging task.
Correct Answer: (C) They always succeed.
View Solution

Question 65:

As per NEP 2020, the school education curriculum is divided into the following pedagogical stages-

(a) Preparatory stage
(b) Foundational stage
(c) Higher Secondary stage
(d) Middle stage
(e) Secondary stage
(f) Elementary stage

  • (A) (b), (a), (d), (e)
  • (B) (a), (b), (d), (e)
  • (C) (b), (f), (d), (e)
  • (D) (a), (b), (f), (e)
Correct Answer: (D) (a), (b), (f), (e)
View Solution

Question 66:

Match the teaching method with its description.

Column I
(I) Heuristic / Discovery Method
(II) Problem Solving Method
(III) Inductive and Deductive Method
(IV) Analytic & Synthetic Method

Column II
(a) Involves moving from specific examples to generalization and vice versa.
(b) Encourage learners to actively explore and discover solutions through experience.
(c) Requires breaking down complex concepts into smaller units and vice versa for better understanding.
(d) Involves structured steps for learners to solve problems and reach conclusions.

Correct Answer: B. I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c
View Solution

Question 67:

Which of the following responsibility is not typically associated with the role of a teacher as a teacher-counsellor?

Correct Answer: C. Conducting psychotherapy sessions.
View Solution

Question 68:

Match the following qualities of an effective teacher with their corresponding descriptions.

Column I
(I) Empathy
(II) Communication skill
(III) Classroom management
(IV) Differentiated instruction

Column II
(a) Skill in maintaining discipline and creating a positive learning environment.
(b) Capacity to understand and connect with student’s feelings and experiences.
(c) Ability to adopt teaching methods to diverse learning styles.
(d) Clear and concise expression of ideas, instruction and feedback.

Correct Answer: B. I-b, II-d, III-a, IV-c
View Solution

Question 69:

Assertion (A): Cochlear implants are effective for children with hearing impairments.
Reason (R): Cochlear implants amplify sound to make it louder for the users.

Correct Answer: B. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
View Solution

Question 70:

What is the primary role of a teacher in maintaining discipline in the classroom?

(a) To create an environment of fear to ensure compliance.
(b) To establish clear rules and consequences.
(c) To ignore minor misbehaviours.
(d) To rely on the principal to handle all discipline issues.

Correct Answer: B. (a) and (b)
View Solution

Question 71:

Which type of group formation is most likely to enhance learning through diverse perspective and peer support?

  • (A) Homogeneous grouping
  • (B) Heterogeneous grouping
  • (C) Interest based grouping
  • (D) Ability based grouping
Correct Answer: (B) Heterogeneous grouping
View Solution

Question 72:

Ramesh is a teacher with a strong understanding of pedagogy. He uses field trips as a part of his pedagogy. What is the primary educational benefit of field trips for teaching-learning?

  • (A) To reduce workload.
  • (B) To give students a break from regular classroom activities.
  • (C) To allow students to socialize in different settings.
  • (D) To provide them with first hand study experiences of things that cannot be brought into the classroom.
Correct Answer: (D) To provide them with first hand study experiences of things that cannot be brought into the classroom.
View Solution

Question 73:

Which of the following statements best describes the importance of reflective practices for a teacher?

  • (A) Reflective practices are primarily beneficial for novice teachers and not experienced ones.
  • (B) Reflective practices are primarily beneficial for experienced teachers occupying senior roles.
  • (C) Reflective practices help teachers to teach at higher classes only.
  • (D) Reflective practices assist a teacher in making informed choices and decisions related to teaching-learning.
Correct Answer: (D) Reflective practices assist a teacher in making informed choices and decisions related to teaching-learning.
View Solution

Question 74:

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test?

  • (A) Reliability
  • (B) Ambiguity
  • (C) Validity
  • (D) Objectivity
Correct Answer: (B) Ambiguity
View Solution

Question 75:

If a child has a mental age of 12 years and a chronological age of 10 years, then what will be the IQ of the child?

  • (A) 83.33
  • (B) 100
  • (C) 120
  • (D) 80
Correct Answer: (C) 120
View Solution

Question 76:

Which of the following activities best exemplifies experiential learning?

Correct Answer: C. Participating in a hands-on workshop.
View Solution

Question 77:

Which of the following statement is true regarding the use of concept mapping, in teaching – learning and assessment?

Correct Answer: B. Concept mapping which is used as a strategy for teaching - learning can also be used as an assessment tool.
View Solution

Question 78:

A good teacher should be free from-

(a) Personal Experiences
(b) Academic Inertia
(c) Financial Resources
(d) Community Experiences

Correct Answer: B. (a), (b) and (d)
View Solution

Question 79:

Which strategy involves breaking content into sections and assigning groups to become experts on different sections?

Correct Answer: B. Jigsaw Technique
View Solution

Question 80:

What are the four pillars of learning as proposed by UNESCO report (1996)?

Correct Answer: C. Learning to know, learning to do, learning to be and learning to live together.
View Solution

General Hindi

Question 81:

 जिन स्वरों का उच्चारण केवल मुख से होता है, उन्हें कहते हैं-

A. अनुनासिक 
B. स्वरांतरी 
C. अननुनासिक 
D. अनुस्वार

Correct Answer:C. अननुनासिक
View Solution

Question 82:

 'कल' का अनेकार्थक शब्द है-
(a) बीता हुआ कल (दिन)
(b) आने वाला दिन
(c) चैन
(d) मशीन

A. (a), (b), (c)
B. (b), (c), (d)
C. (a), (b), (c) एवं (d)

D. (a), (c), (d)

Correct Answer:C. (a), (b), (c) एवं (d)
View Solution

Question 83:

 'चटका' शब्द है - स्तंभ II में किस श्रेणी में आता है?
A. तत्सम 
B. तद्भव 
C. देशज 
D. विदेशी

Correct Answer:C. देशज
View Solution

Question 84:

 उचित सम्बन्ध जोड़िए-

Correct Answer:A. a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III
View Solution 

Question 85:


 उचित सम्बन्ध जोड़िए-

Correct Answer:A. a-III, b-IV, c-II, d-I
View Solution

Question 86:

वाक्य के अंग होते हैं-

A. 03 
B. 02   
C. 04   
D. 05  

Correct Answer:D. 05
View Solution

Step 1: वाक्य के अंगों का समझना।

वाक्य के अंग होते हैं:

- कर्ता (Subject)

- क्रिया (Verb)

- कर्म (Object)

- संज्ञा (Noun)

- विशेषण (Adjective)

Step 2: वाक्य के अंगों की संख्या।
वाक्य में कुल पाँच अंग होते हैं, जो भाषा की संरचना को पूरी तरह से व्यक्त करते हैं।

Step 3: निष्कर्ष।
सही उत्तर है: 05

Quick Tip:वाक्य के अंगों को पहचानने के लिए यह समझना महत्वपूर्ण है कि किस अंग का क्या कार्य है: - कर्ता (Subject) - जो क्रिया करता है। - क्रिया (Verb) - जो क्रिया या कार्य को व्यक्त करती है। - कर्म (Object) - जो क्रिया से प्रभावित होता है।


Question 87:


 निम्नांकित शब्दों को इस क्रम में जमाइए कि लोकोक्ति का स्वरूप प्राप्त कर लें-
(a) करनी
(b) अपनी
(c) उतरनी
(d) पार

Correct Answer:C. (b), (a), (d), (c)
View Solution

Step 1: लोकोक्ति का समझना।

लोकोक्ति एक प्रसिद्ध कहावत या मुहावरा है, जो एक सामान्य जीवन के अनुभव से निकलता है।

Step 2: शब्दों का सही क्रम।

शब्दों को सही क्रम में जोड़ने से यह लोकोक्ति बनेगी: "अपनी करनी, पार उतरनी, करना और फिर पार करना।"

Step 3: निष्कर्ष।

सही उत्तर है: C. (b), (a), (d), (c)
Quick Tip:लोकोक्ति या मुहावरे में शब्दों का सही क्रम बहुत महत्वपूर्ण होता है। अर्थ बदलने से पूरा वाक्य असमझ में आ सकता है।


Question 88:

(a) व्याकरण सम्मत वाक्य अशुध्द उच्चारण करने पर अपूर्ण माना जाता है।
(b) किसी भी भाषा के उच्चारण हेतु चार स्तर निर्धारित है ध्वनि, शब्द, वाक्य एवं प्रान्तीय।

 

A. (a) सही (b) गलत 
B. (a) गलत (b) सही  
C. (a) एवं (b) दोनों सही   
D. (a) एवं (b) दोनों गलत 

Correct Answer:C. (a) एवं (b) दोनों सही
View Solution

Question 89:

 "मैनेजर ने कहा तुम्हे घर घर जाकर सूचनाएँ इकट्ठी करनी होगी" उपर्युक्त वाक्य के लिए उचित विराम चिह्न वाले वाक्य का चयन कीजिए।
A. मैनेजर ने कहा, "तुम्हे घर-घर जाकर सूचनाएँ इकट्ठी करनी होगी"। 
B. मैनेजर ने, कहा, तुम्हे घर-घर जाकर, सूचनाएँ इकट्ठी करनी होगी।   
C. मैनेजर ने कहा, तुम्हे घर-घर जाकर, सूचनाएँ इकट्ठी करनी होगी  
D. मैनेजर ने कहा तुम्हे, घर घर जाकर सूचनाएँ, इकड्डी करनी होगी।  

Correct Answer:A. मैनेजर ने कहा, "तुम्हे घर-घर जाकर सूचनाएँ इकट्ठी करनी होगी"।
View Solution

Step 1: वाक्य का प्रकार पहचानना।

यह एक संवादात्मक वाक्य है जिसमें कथन को उद्धरण चिह्न (" ") में प्रस्तुत किया गया है।

Step 2: विराम चिह्नों का सही उपयोग।

- "कहा" के बाद अल्पविराम (,) और उद्धरण चिह्न (" ") का प्रयोग उचित है।
- "घर-घर" में योजक चिह्न (-) का प्रयोग सही है।
- वाक्य के अंत में पूर्ण विराम (।) का प्रयोग आवश्यक है।

Step 3: निष्कर्ष।

सही उत्तर है: A. मैनेजर ने कहा, "तुम्हे घर-घर जाकर सूचनाएँ इकट्ठी करनी होगी"।

Quick Tip:उद्धरण वाक्यों में संवाद शुरू होने से पहले अल्पविराम और संवाद को " " में लिखना चाहिए। जहाँ आवश्यक हो, वहाँ योजक और पूर्णविराम चिह्नों का भी सही प्रयोग करें। 


Question 90:

उचित वर्तनी युक्त शब्द का चयन कीजिए।
A. मैथलीशरण 
B. मैथिलीशरण   
C. मैथीलीशरण   
D. मैथिलिशरण 

Correct Answer:B. मैथिलीशरण
View Solution

General English

Question 91:

Choose the correct coordinating clause: 'It stopped raining and the traffic started rushing.'

  • (A) ‘It stopped raining’
  • (B) ‘The traffic started rushing’
  • (C) ‘It stopped raining’ ‘the traffic started rushing’
  • (D) ‘and the traffic’
Correct Answer: (D) ‘and the traffic’
View Solution

Question 92:

Choose the correct preposition: She was born ------- December ------ midnight.

  • (A) on, during
  • (B) in, for
  • (C) in, at
  • (D) within, in
Correct Answer: (C) in, at
View Solution

Question 93:

Choose the correct one word substitute for – An accolade or honour bestowed in recognition:

  • (A) mercenary
  • (B) carte blanche
  • (C) fiesta
  • (D) laurel
Correct Answer: (D) laurel
View Solution

Question 94:

Choose the correct spelling: Take the place of a person or thing previously in authority or use.

  • (A) supercede
  • (B) supersede
  • (C) supersede
  • (D) superceed
Correct Answer: (B) supersede
View Solution

Question 95:

Lacey and Barnes were waiting for:

  • (A) midnight
  • (B) a signal
  • (C) a friend
  • (D) a car
Correct Answer: (D) a car
View Solution

Question 96:

Barnes wanted to:

  • (A) put on the gloves
  • (B) take his tools
  • (C) take his gun
  • (D) take his car
Correct Answer: (C) take his gun
View Solution

Question 97:

Before Barnes could get into the house:

  • (A) people shouted
  • (B) there was a fire
  • (C) a car came
  • (D) saw a trap
Correct Answer: (C) a car came
View Solution

Question 98:

Which of these sentences suggest that Lacey and Barnes were thieves?

(I) They had a car.

(II) They were wearing dark clothes.

(III) They put on gloves.

(IV) Barnes wanted to take a gun.

(V) Barnes was afraid of dogs.

(VI) Lacey could whistle.

(VII) They ran away when the car came.

  • (A) (II), (III), (IV), (VII)
  • (B) (I), (III), (IV), (VI)
  • (C) (II), (IV), (VI), (VII)
  • (D) (I), (III), (IV), (V)
Correct Answer: (A) (II), (III), (IV), (VII)
View Solution

Question 99:

Choose the correct order of sentences:

(I) Lacey could not open the kitchen door.

(II) Lacey and Barnes came to a yard.

(III) A car approached the house.

(IV) Lacey and Barnes entered the garden through a small gate.

(V) Lacey got into the house through a small window.

(VI) Lacey and Barnes were waiting in their car.

  • (A) (VI), (IV), (II), (I), (V), (III)
  • (B) (IV), (VI), (I), (II), (III), (V)
  • (C) (V), (VI), (I), (IV), (II), (III)
  • (D) (IV), (II), (I), (V), (VI), (III)
Correct Answer: (D) (IV), (II), (I), (V), (VI), (III)
View Solution

Question 100:

This story is about:

  • (A) two policemen
  • (B) two friends
  • (C) two neighbours
  • (D) two thieves
Correct Answer: (D) two thieves
View Solution



CG Pre BEd Questions

  • 1.
    What is the title of the Yashpal Committee report?

      • Education and National Development
      • Education Without Burden
      • School Without Walls
      • ICT in Teacher Education

    • 2.
      Choose the correct statements regarding the Mukhyamantri Gram Sadak Evam Vikas Yojana (Chief Minister's Rural Road and Development Scheme): (I) This scheme has been implemented in the state since 23 April 2011.
      (II) It is 100% state-funded.
      (III) Under this scheme, rural unemployed persons are provided employment for 100 days.
      (IV) Its management is based on public participation.

        • Statements I and III are correct.
        • Statements I and II are correct.
        • Statements II and III are correct.
        • Statements III and IV are correct.

      • 3.
        Which sector contributes the most (highest percentage) to the Gross Domestic Product of Chhattisgarh?

          • Agriculture
          • Manufacturing (Industries)
          • Services
          • All equally

        • 4.
          Sequence the following stages in the correct order for promoting value education in schools as per NCF 2023-
          (a) Encouraging critical thinking and reflection.
          (b) Building a value-based school culture.
          (c) Integrating values into the curriculum.
          (d) Assessing student learning and progress.
          Options :

            • c, a, b, d
            • b, a, c, d
            • b, c, a, d
            • a, c, b, d

          • 5.
            Arrange the following events in their correct order, which are related to the development of the banking system in India -
            (a) Establishment of Oudh Commercial Bank
            (b) Establishment of State Bank of India
            (c) Nationalization of Reserve Bank of India
            (d) Nationalization of banks
            (e) Establishment of Reserve Bank of India

              • e > a > c > b > d
              • b > e > c > a > d
              • a > e > c > b > d
              • d > b > e > c > a

            • 6.

              Make the correct pair-

              disease with its affected organ

              Choose the correct answer from the options given below-

                • I-a, II-b, III-c, IV-d
                • I-d, II-a, III-b, IV-c
                • I-b, II-c, III-d, IV-a
                • I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b

              Fees Structure

              Structure based on different categories

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              General200
              sc100
              pwd100

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