\(f:R→R,f(x)=3x\)
Let \(x, y ∈ R\) such that \(f(x) = f(y).\)
\(⇒ 3x = 3y\)
\(⇒ x = y\)
∴f is one-one.
Also, for any real number (y) in co-domain R, there exists \(\frac{y}{3}\) in R such that \(f(\frac{y}{3})=3(\frac{y}{3})=y\).
∴f is onto.
Hence, function f is one-one and onto.
The correct answer is A.
Let's find out if the function is one-to-one.
For a function to be one-to-one, whenever \(f(x_1) = f(x_2),\) then \(x_1 = x_2.\)
Given \(f(x)=3x,\)
For one-to-one, if \(f(x_1) = f(x_2), 3x_1 = 3x_2\)
\(x_1 = x_2\)
Therefore, if \(f(x_1) = f(x_2)\), then \(x_1 = x_2.\)
So, the function f is one-to-one.
Now, let's check if the function is onto.
For a function to be onto, for every y in the range, there exists an x in the domain such that \(f(x) = y.\)
Let's consider \(f(x)=3x.\)
Let \(f(x)=y\), where y is any real number.
3x=y
\(x = \frac{y}{3}\)
Now, for \(y=f(x),\)
Putting the value of x in \(f(x),\)
\(f(x) = f\left(\frac{y}{3}\right)\)
\(f(x) = 3\left(\frac{y}{3}\right)\)
\(f(x)=y\)
Thus, for every y in the real numbers, there exists an xxx in the real numbers such that \(f(x)=y.\)
Hence is onto.
So, f is both one-to-one and onto.
Therefore, option A is correct.
LIST I | LIST II | ||
A. | Range of y=cosec-1x | I. | R-(-1, 1) |
B. | Domain of sec-1x | II. | (0, π) |
C. | Domain of sin-1x | III. | [-1, 1] |
D. | Range of y=cot-1x | IV. | \([\frac{-π}{2},\frac{π}{2}]\)-{0} |
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A function is said to be one to one function when f: A → B is One to One if for each element of A there is a distinct element of B.
A function which maps two or more elements of A to the same element of set B is said to be many to one function. Two or more elements of A have the same image in B.
If there exists a function for which every element of set B there is (are) pre-image(s) in set A, it is Onto Function.
A function, f is One – One and Onto or Bijective if the function f is both One to One and Onto function.
Read More: Types of Functions