Comprehension
To maintain the secular character of the Indian polity, not only does the Constitution of India guarantee freedom of religion to individuals and groups, but it is also against the general policy of the Constitution of India that any money be paid out of the public funds for promoting or maintaining any particular religion. Accordingly, it is provided in the Constitution of India that no person shall be compelled to pay any taxes, the proceeds of which are specifically appropriated in payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination. This does not prohibit the State from enacting a law to incur expenses for the promotion or maintenance of any particular religion or religious denomination, but by such law, no person can be compelled to pay any tax, the proceeds of which are to be so utilized. This, however, does not invalidate levy of a fee to provide some service. Thus, a fee can be levied on pilgrims to a religious fair to meet the expenses of the measures taken to safeguard the health, safety and welfare of the pilgrims. Such fee levied by a State will be valid because the object of such contribution is not to foster or preserve religion, but to control secular administration of religious institutions.
Question: 1

Mr. A, a tax-payer of various taxes levied by the State Government, filed a writ petition for issuance of a writ of mandamus directing the State to forbear from spending any amount from the public funds of the state for renovation of water tanks belonging to a Hindu temple in the State. These tanks were used by the general public, irrespective of their religious affiliation, for bathing and drinking purposes. In the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?

Updated On: Jul 14, 2026
  • The State is promoting or maintaining the Hindu religion.
  • The State cannot be said to be promoting or maintaining the Hindu religion.
  • The State is compelling citizens to pay tax for promotion of Hindu religion.
  • The State is compelling citizens to pay tax for maintenance of Hindu religion.
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The Correct Option is B

Approach Solution - 1

The correct option is (B): The State cannot be said to be promoting or maintaining the Hindu religion.
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Approach Solution -2

Mr. A challenges State spending on renovating temple water tanks that are used by the general public, of all faiths, for bathing and drinking. The test under the constitutional scheme is whether the object of the expenditure is to foster or preserve a religion, or whether it serves a secular, public purpose. Let's test each option against this:

  1. Option A: This claims the State is promoting or maintaining the Hindu religion by this expenditure. But since the tanks are used by the general public regardless of religious affiliation, for the ordinary secular purposes of bathing and drinking water, the object of the renovation is public welfare and utility, not the fostering of any particular faith. So this option mischaracterizes the State's purpose.
  2. Option B: This is the correct reading. Because the water tanks serve a secular, public function open to all persons irrespective of religion, spending public money on their upkeep cannot be equated with promoting or maintaining the Hindu religion, even though the tanks happen to be located within or belong to a Hindu temple. The object test looks at the real purpose being served, here, public health and welfare, not religious promotion.
  3. Option C: This frames the issue as one of compelling citizens to pay tax specifically for promoting Hindu religion. Since the actual object of the spending is a secular public amenity, not promotion of a religion, this characterization does not hold. The constitutional bar targets taxes whose proceeds are appropriated specifically for religious promotion, and that is not what is happening here.
  4. Option D: For the same reason as Option C, this option incorrectly frames general public welfare spending as compelled taxation for religious "maintenance." The secular, public-utility character of the tanks takes the expenditure outside that category entirely.

Since the tanks serve a public, secular function open to everyone, the expenditure cannot fairly be characterized as promoting or maintaining a particular religion.

Therefore, the correct answer is The State cannot be said to be promoting or maintaining the Hindu religion.

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Question: 2

Communal riots between religion 'A' and religion 'B' resulted in the destruction of places of worship of both religions in a State. As a result, the State Government utilized public funds for restoring the places of worship of both religions 'A' and 'B'. In the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?

Updated On: Jul 14, 2026
  • The State Government's act is violative of the Constitution of India as it is promoting or maintaining particular religions.
  • The State Government's act is not violative of the Constitution of India as it is not promoting or maintaining any particular religion.
  • The State Government's act is violative of freedom of religion as it condones communal violence.
  • The State Government's act is not violative of the Constitution of India as it is promoting or maintaining a particular religion.
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The Correct Option is B

Approach Solution - 1

The correct option is (B): The State Government's act is violative of freedom of religion as it condones communal violence.
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Approach Solution -2

After communal riots damaged places of worship of both religion 'A' and religion 'B', the State used public funds to restore both. The question is whether this even-handed restoration amounts to promoting or maintaining a particular religion in violation of the constitutional bar. Let's examine each option:

  1. Option A: This says the State's act is violative because it promotes or maintains particular religions. But the State restored the places of worship of both communities equally, it did not single out one religion for benefit over another. Since no particular religion is being favoured, this characterization does not hold.
  2. Option B: This correctly captures the position. By restoring the damaged religious structures of both religion 'A' and religion 'B' even-handedly, in the aftermath of communal violence, the State is acting to restore public order and undo riot damage rather than to foster or prefer any one religion over another. Since no particular religion is singled out for promotion, the act does not fall foul of the constitutional bar on funding religious promotion.
  3. Option C: This option shifts the ground to "freedom of religion" and suggests the act "condones" communal violence. But restoring damaged property after a riot is a remedial, law-and-order measure, it does not amount to condoning the violence that caused the damage, nor does it engage freedom of religion at all. This mischaracterizes both the legal issue and the facts.
  4. Option D: This option is internally inconsistent, it concludes the act is "not violative" while simultaneously asserting the State IS promoting or maintaining a particular religion, when in fact promoting a particular religion is exactly what would make State action objectionable under this scheme. Since the premise contradicts the conclusion, and since the State is not in fact favouring one religion here, this option is incorrect.

Because both communities were treated equally in the restoration effort, no particular religion is being promoted or maintained, so the State's action is constitutionally sound.

Therefore, the correct answer is The State Government's act is not violative of the Constitution of India as it is not promoting or maintaining any particular religion.

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Question: 3

Communal riots between religion 'A' and religion 'B' resulted in the destruction of a place of worship of religion 'B' in the State. As a result, the State Government utilized public funds for restoring the places of worship of religion 'B'. In the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?

Updated On: Jul 14, 2026
  • The State Government's act is violative of the Constitution of India as it is promoting or maintaining a particular religion.
  • The State Government's act is not violative of the Constitution of India as it is promoting or maintaining a particular religion.
  • The State Government's act is not violative of the Constitution of India as it is not promoting or maintaining a particular religion.
  • The State Government's act is violative of freedom of religion as it condones communal violence.
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The Correct Option is C

Approach Solution - 1

The correct option is (C): The State Government's act is not violative of the Constitution of India as it is not promoting or maintaining a particular religion.
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Approach Solution -2

This time, only religion 'B' suffered damage in the riots, and the State restored only religion 'B's place of worship using public funds. The question is whether restoring just one community's damaged structure, rather than both, changes the constitutional analysis. Let's work through each option:

  1. Option A: This says the act is violative because the State is promoting or maintaining a particular religion. But the reason only religion 'B's structure was restored is that only religion 'B's structure was damaged, there was nothing belonging to religion 'A' to restore. The restoration is explained entirely by the extent of the damage, not by any intent to favour religion 'B', so this option mischaracterizes the State's purpose.
  2. Option B: This option is self-contradictory, it concludes the act is "not violative" yet says this is "because" the State is promoting or maintaining a particular religion, when promoting a particular religion is exactly what the constitutional scheme prohibits. An act that truly promoted a religion would be violative, not saved. This reasoning cannot be correct.
  3. Option C: This is the sound analysis. Restoring a place of worship damaged in a riot is a remedial, restorative measure responding to the extent of the harm actually caused, not a deliberate choice to foster or prefer religion 'B'. Since the object of the expenditure is to undo riot damage and maintain public order and communal harmony, not to promote religion 'B' as such, the act does not fall foul of the bar on funding religious promotion, even though only one community benefited on these particular facts.
  4. Option D: As before, restoring damaged property is a corrective law-and-order response to the riot, it does not amount to condoning the violence that caused the damage, and it does not implicate freedom of religion. This option mischaracterizes the nature of the State's action.

Since the scope of the restoration tracks the scope of the damage rather than any preference for religion 'B', the State's action remains constitutionally valid.

Therefore, the correct answer is The State Government's act is not violative of the Constitution of India as it is not promoting or maintaining a particular religion.

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Question: 4

A State Government passed a law making it mandatory for all residents of the State to pay a hefty 'pilgrimage tax' so as to aid the State in organizing a popular religious pilgrimage in that State. The said pilgrimage is undertaken only by followers of religion 'X' and draws a large number of followers of religion 'X' from all over the country to the state every year. In the given situation, which of the following statements is correct?

Updated On: Jul 14, 2026
  • The State Government's act is violative of the Constitution of India as it is not promoting or maintaining religion 'X'.
  • The State Government's act is not violative of the Constitution of India as it is not promoting or maintaining religion 'X'.
  • The State Government's act is violative of the Constitution of India as it is compelling citizens to pay tax for promoting or maintaining religion 'X'.
  • The State Government's act is not violative of the Constitution of India as it is a measure to safeguard the health, safety and welfare of the pilgrims.
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The Correct Option is C

Approach Solution - 1

The correct option is (C): The State Government's act is violative of the Constitution of India as it is compelling citizens to pay tax for promoting or maintaining religion 'X'..
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Approach Solution -2

Here, the State makes it mandatory for ALL residents, not just followers of religion 'X', to pay a "pilgrimage tax" to help organize a pilgrimage that only followers of religion 'X' undertake. This needs to be tested against the distinction between a tax used to promote religion, which is barred, and a fee charged for a genuine secular service, which is permitted. Let's go through the options:

  1. Option A: This states the act is violative "as it is not promoting or maintaining religion 'X'." This is self-contradictory, if the act truly did not promote religion 'X', there would be no constitutional violation at all under this scheme. The conclusion does not follow from the stated premise.
  2. Option B: This says the act is valid because it does not promote religion 'X'. But the pilgrimage tax is levied specifically to aid the State in organizing a pilgrimage that only religion 'X's followers undertake, using funds compulsorily collected from every resident. That is a direct application of tax revenue to further a practice tied to one specific religion, which is exactly what the constitutional scheme prohibits, so this understates what is really happening.
  3. Option C: This is the correct analysis. The levy here is a "tax", compulsorily imposed on all residents regardless of their faith, and its proceeds are used to aid in organizing a pilgrimage undertaken specifically by followers of religion 'X'. Unlike a fee tied to a specific, identifiable secular service, this tax funds an event that is inherently religious to one community, meaning residents of every faith are compelled to fund the promotion of religion 'X'. This squarely falls within what the Constitution bars.
  4. Option D: This tries to fit the facts into the "fee for pilgrim safety" exception. But a fee for safety, health, or welfare measures is levied on those actually availing of the service, in exchange for a specific, identifiable benefit, whereas here every resident of the State is taxed, without distinction, purely to help organize the religious event itself, not to fund a discrete safety or welfare service for pilgrims. The label "tax" and its universal, compulsory nature take it outside the narrow fee exception.

Because this is a compulsory tax on all residents used to fund a pilgrimage exclusive to one religion, rather than a fee for an identifiable secular service, it directly promotes religion 'X' using tax revenue.

Therefore, the correct answer is The State Government's act is violative of the Constitution of India as it is compelling citizens to pay tax for promoting or maintaining religion 'X'.

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Question: 5

The object of a State Legislation is "to provide for the better administration and governance of certain Hindu religious endowments", where 'religious endowment' means the property belonging to or given or endowed for the support of temples. The State Legislation vests the supervision of public temples in a statutory authority, i.e., 'Commissioner of Hindu Religious Endowments'. For the purpose of meeting the expenses of the Commissioner and his staff, every Hindu temple in the State is required under provisions of the State Legislation, to pay an annual contribution at certain percentage of their annual income. In the given situation, which of the following statements is correct regarding the annual contribution provided under the State Legislation?

Updated On: Jul 14, 2026
  • It is not violative of the Constitution of India because its object is the proper administration of religious trusts and institutions.
  • It is not violative of the Constitution of India because its object is fostering of Hindu religion.
  • It is violative of the Constitution of India because its object is fostering of Hindu religion.
  • It is violative of the Constitution of India because its object is not inclusive of administration of religious endowments belonging to all religions.
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The Correct Option is A

Approach Solution - 1

The correct option is (A): It is not violative of the Constitution of India because its object is the proper administration of religious trusts and institutions.
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Approach Solution -2

The State Legislation here creates a Commissioner to supervise Hindu temples and requires each temple to contribute towards the cost of that supervision, all for the stated object of "better administration and governance" of Hindu religious endowments. The question is whether this contribution requirement is constitutionally valid. Let's assess each option:

  1. Option A: This is the correct characterization. The law's stated and actual object is to ensure religious trusts and endowments are properly administered, preventing mismanagement or misappropriation of temple funds and property, which is a secular, regulatory purpose. The State is entitled to regulate the secular administration of religious institutions even while religious practice itself remains untouched, so a contribution to fund that regulatory machinery is not the same as funding religious worship or promotion.
  2. Option B: This claims the act is not violative but attributes it to "fostering of Hindu religion," which is internally inconsistent, if the object truly were to foster a religion, the levy would run into the same constitutional difficulty, not escape it. The actual object here is administrative regulation, not fostering religion, so this option mischaracterizes the purpose even while reaching a result.
  3. Option C: This says the act is violative because its object is fostering Hindu religion. But the legislation is aimed at administration and governance of temple property and finances, ensuring accountability and proper management, not at propagating religious doctrine or practice. Since the object is regulatory rather than promotional, this characterization is incorrect.
  4. Option D: This argues the law is violative because it does not cover endowments of all religions. However, a State is not constitutionally required to regulate every religion's institutions in a single, undifferentiated statute, it may legislate for the administration of a particular class of religious or charitable institutions, such as Hindu religious endowments, without that scheme being invalid merely because it does not extend to other religions in the same enactment.

Since the legislation's true object is the proper administration of religious trusts and endowments rather than the promotion of religion, the annual contribution to fund that administration is constitutionally valid.

Therefore, the correct answer is It is not violative of the Constitution of India because its object is the proper administration of religious trusts and institutions.

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