Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Direction cosines satisfy \(l^2 + m^2 + n^2 = 1\). Given \(l + m + n = 0\) and \(lm = 0\).
Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
Since \(lm = 0\), either \(l = 0\) or \(m = 0\).
Case 1: \(l = 0\). Then \(m + n = 0 \implies n = -m\).
Also \(m^2 + n^2 = 1 \implies m^2 + m^2 = 1 \implies 2m^2 = 1 \implies m = \pm \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\), \(n = \mp \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\).
So direction cosines: \((0, \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})\).
Case 2: \(m = 0\). Then \(l + n = 0 \implies n = -l\).
\(l^2 + n^2 = 1 \implies 2l^2 = 1 \implies l = \pm \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\), \(n = \mp \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\).
So direction cosines: \((\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}, 0, -\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}})\).
Angle between them: dot product = \(0 \times \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \times 0 + (-\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}) \times (-\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}) = \frac{1}{2}\).
So \(\cos \theta = \frac{1}{2} \implies \theta = \frac{\pi}{3}\).
Step 3: Final Answer:
Option (A) \(\frac{\pi}{3}\).