Question:

Let the series 𝑆 and 𝑇 be defined by
\(βˆ‘^∞_{n-0}\frac{ 2 β‹… 5 β‹… 8 β‹― (3𝑛 + 2) }{1 β‹… 5 β‹… 9 β‹― (4𝑛 + 1)}\) and \(βˆ‘^∞ _{n=1}(1 + \frac{1 }{𝑛} ) ^{βˆ’π‘›^2}\)
respectively. Then, which one of the following statements is TRUE?

Updated On: Nov 17, 2025
  • 𝑆 is convergent and 𝑇 is divergen
  • 𝑆 is divergent and 𝑇 is convergent
  • Both 𝑆 and 𝑇 are convergent
  • Both 𝑆 and 𝑇 are divergent
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The Correct Option is C

Solution and Explanation

The problem requires evaluating the convergence of two infinite series, \(S\) and \(T\), defined as follows:

Series \(S\):

\(S = βˆ‘^∞_{n=0}\frac{2 β‹… 5 β‹… 8 β‹― (3n + 2)}{1 β‹… 5 β‹… 9 β‹― (4n + 1)}\)

Series \(T\):

\(T = βˆ‘^∞_{n=1}(1 + \frac{1}{n})^{-n^2}\)

Let's analyze each series: 

  1. Convergence of Series \(S\):
    The series \(S\) can be represented as a product where the numerators and denominators follow an arithmetic pattern:
    • The terms in the numerator are in arithmetic progression with the form \(3n + 2\).
    • The terms in the denominator are in arithmetic progression with the form \(4n + 1\).
  2. Convergence of Series \(T\):
    The series is defined as: \(T = βˆ‘^∞_{n=1}(1 + \frac{1}{n})^{-n^2}\) Considering the expression: \((1 + \frac{1}{n})^{-n^2} = e^{-n \cdot \ln(1+\frac{1}{n})}\) For large \(n\), we approximate \(\ln(1+\frac{1}{n}) \approx \frac{1}{n}\). Thus: \(e^{-n \cdot \ln(1+\frac{1}{n})} \approx e^{-n \cdot \frac{1}{n}} = e^{-1}\) Each term of the series can be approximated to a constant that ensures the finite nature of terms, making it convergent.

By analyzing both series, we determine that both \(S\) and \(T\) are convergent.

Conclusion: The correct answer is: Both \(S\) and \(T\) are convergent.

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