Show that \(\int_{0}^{a}\)ƒ(x)g(x)dx=2\(\int_{0}^{a}\)ƒ(x)dx,if f and g are defined as ƒ(x)=ƒ(a-x)and g(x)+g(a-x)=4
\(\int \sqrt{1+x^2}dx\) is equal to
The anti derivative of \(\bigg(\sqrt x+\frac{1}{\sqrt x}\bigg)\) equals
\(∫\frac {e^x(1+x)}{cos^2(e^x x)}\ dx \ equals\)
\(∫\frac {sin^2 x-cos^2 x}{sin^2 x cos^2 x }\ dx \ is\ equal \ to\)