Rather than quoting the time-shifting property directly, it can be derived from the definition of the Laplace transform and then checked against each option.
By definition,
\[
\mathcal{L}\{f(t-T)\} = \int_0^{\infty} f(t-T) e^{-st}\,dt
\]
Substituting \(\tau = t - T\), so \(t = \tau + T\) and \(dt = d\tau\), and shifting the limits accordingly (with \(f\) taken as zero for negative argument):
\[
\mathcal{L}\{f(t-T)\} = \int_0^{\infty} f(\tau)e^{-s(\tau+T)}\,d\tau = e^{-sT}\int_0^{\infty} f(\tau)e^{-s\tau}\,d\tau = e^{-sT}F(s)
\]
- \(e^{sT}F(s)\): This would arise from a sign error in the substitution, effectively treating the shift as advancing \(f(t)\) in time rather than delaying it, which is not what \(f(t-T)\) represents.
- \(e^{-sT}F(s)\): This matches exactly what the substitution above produces, with the factor \(e^{-sT}\) coming directly from splitting \(e^{-s(\tau+T)}\) into \(e^{-sT}e^{-s\tau}\).
- \(\dfrac{F(s)}{1+e^{sT}}\): This form does not arise from the direct substitution and instead resembles an expression from periodic-function Laplace transforms, not a simple time shift.
- None of the above: Ruled out since option (ii) is exactly what the derivation produces.
Therefore, the correct answer is \(e^{-sT}F(s)\).