Question

Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Male feminizing syndrome in dogs occurs due to Sertoli Cell tumour
Statement II: Gynaecomastia in male feminizing syndrome occurs due to tumour of Leydig cell
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

• A. Both Statement I and Statement II are true
• B. Both Statement I and Statement II are false
• C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
• D. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true

Hint:

Testicular Tumor Syndromes:
Sertoli Cell Tumor $\rightarrow$ Hyperestrogenism $\rightarrow$ Male Feminizing Syndrome + Gynecomastia + Alopecia.
Leydig Cell Tumor $\rightarrow$ Androgens/Silent + Perianal gland adenomas.

Answer 1

The Correct Option is C

Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
Paraneoplastic hyperestrogenism in canine testicular neoplasms: neoplastic Sertoli cells produce excessive estrogens causing feminization syndrome, gynecomastia, and bilateral symmetrical alopecia.

Step 2: Detailed Explanation:
1. Statement I: In male dogs (particularly cryptorchids), Sertoli Cell Tumours (SCT) frequently synthesize and secrete high amounts of estrogens (estradiol), causing Male Feminizing Syndrome (bilateral symmetrical non-pruritic endocrine alopecia, hyperpigmentation, pendulous prepuce, attractive to other males, and penile/testicular atrophy). Hence, Statement I is correct.
2. Statement II: Gynaecomastia (enlargement of mammary glands with nipple elongation and galactorrhea) is a direct clinical component of this feminizing syndrome caused by hyperestrogenism from the Sertoli cell tumour, NOT from Leydig (interstitial) cell tumors (which produce androgens or are hormonally silent). Hence, Statement II is false.

Step 3: Final Answer:
Thus, Statement I is correct but Statement II is false, corresponding to option (C).