Step 1: Convert credit price to cash equivalent.
Present value of ₹ 2200 due in $1$ year at $10\%$ p.a.:
$\text{PV}=\dfrac{2200}{1+0.10}=₹ 2000$.
Step 2: Compare with cost.
Effective SP (cash equivalent) $=₹ 2000$, Cost $=₹ 1950$.
Gain $=₹(2000-1950)=₹ 50$.
$\Rightarrow\ \boxed{\text{Gains ₹ 50}}.$
David invested in three schemes A, B, C at $10\%$, $12\%$, $15\%$ p.a. respectively. The total interest in one year was ₹3200. Also, $C$ was $150\%$ of $A$ and $240\%$ of $B$. What was the amount invested in $B$?
Veeru gave Rupees 2400 on loan. Some amount he gave at 4% per annum simple interest and remaining at 5% per annum simple interest. After two years he got Rupees 220 as interest. Then the amount given at 4% and 5% per annum simple interest are, respectively?